What projection of the foot will best demonstrate the status of the longitudinal arch?

  1. What are the two differences in the phalanges of the foot as compared with the phalanges of the hand?

    • 1. phalanges of the foot are smaller
    • 2. movements are limited

  2. Which tuberosity of the foot is palpable and a common site of foot trauma?

    base of the 5th metatarsal

  3. Where are the sesamoid bones of the foot most commonly located?

    plantar surface at the head of the first metatarsal

  4. What is the largest and strongest tarsal bone?

    calcaneus

  5. What is the name of the joint found between the talus and calcaneus?

    subtalar joint

  6. For a small to medium plaster cast, how much would you increase the exposure?

    increase mAs 50% to 60% or +5 to 7 kV

  7. For a large plaster cast, how much would you increase the exposure?

    increase mAs 100% or +8 to 10 kV

  8. For a fiberglass cast, how much would you increase the exposure?

    increase mAs 25% to 30% or +3 to 4 kV

  9. True or False
    The cuboid articulates with the four bones of the foot.

    True

  10. The calcaneus articulates with the talus and the:

    cuboid

  11. What are the two arches of the foot?

    • 1. longitudinal
    • 2. transverse

  12. Which three bones make up the ankle joint?

    • 1. talus
    • 2. tibia
    • 3. fibula

  13. The three bones of the ankle form a deep socket into which the talus fits. This socket is called the ____________.

    ankle mortise

  14. The distal tibial joint surface forming the roof of the distal ankle joint is called the

    tibial plafond

  15. True or False
    The medial malleolus is approximately 1/2 inch (1 cm) posterior to the lateral malleolus.

    False.

  16. The ______ is the weight-bearing bone of the lower leg.

    tibia

  17. What is the name of the large prominence located on the midanterior surface of the proximal tibia that serves as a distal attachment for the patellar tendon?

    tibial tuberosity

  18. What is the name of the small prominence located on the posterolateral aspect of the medial condyle of the femur that is an identifying landmark to determine possible rotation of a lateral knee?

    adductor tubercle

  19. A small, triangular depression located on the tibia that helps form the distal tibiofibular joint is called the

    fibular notch

  20. The articular facets of the proximal tibia are also referred to as the

    tibial plateau

  21. The articular facets slope _________ degrees posteriorly.

    10 to 15 degrees

  22. The most proximal aspect of the fibula is the

    apex or styloid process

  23. The extreme distal end of the fibula forms the

    lateral malleolus

  24. What is the name of the largest sesamoid bone in the body?

    patella

  25. What are two other names for the patellar surface of the femur?

    • 1. intercondylar sulcus
    • 2. trochlear groove

  26. What is the name of the depression located on the posterior aspect of the distal femur?

    intercondylar fossa

  27. Why must the CR be angled 5 to 7 degrees cephalad for a lateral knee position?

    the medial condyle extends lower than the lateral condyle

  28. The slightly raised area located on the posterolateral aspect of the medial femoral condyle is called the

    adductor tubercle

  29. What are the two palpable bony landmarks found on the distal femur?

    • 1. medial epicondyle
    • 2. lateral epicondyle

  30. The general region of the posterior knee is called the

    popliteal region

  31. True or False
    Flexion of 20 degrees of the knee forces the patella firmly against the patellar surface of the femur.

    false

  32. True or False
    The patella acts like a pivot to increase the leverage of a large muscle found in the anterior thigh.

    true

  33. True or False
    The posterior surface of the patella is normally rough.

    False

  34. List the two bursae found in the knee joint.

    • 1. suprapatellar bursa
    • 2. infrapatellar bursa

  35. inward turning or bending of ankle

    inversion (varus)

  36. decreasing the angle between the dorsum pedis and anterior lower leg

    dorsiflexion

  37. extending the ankle or pointing the foot and toe downward

    plantar flexion

  38. outward turning or bending of ankle

    eversion (valgus)

  39. True or False
    The recommended SID for lower limb is 40 inches.

    true

  40. True or False
    To reduce scatter radiation during table top procedures, the Bucky tray should be positioned over the lower limb being radiographed.

    false

  41. True or False
    During DR, lead masking should be placed on the regions of the IR, not within the collimation field.

    true

  42. True or False
    A kV range between 50 and 70 should be used for film-screen lower limb radiography.

    true

  43. True or False
    kV range for CR and DR is typically lower as compared with film-screen ranges.

    false

  44. an inflammatory condition involving the anterior, proximal tibia

    Osgood-Schlatter disease

  45. also known as osteitis deformans

    Paget's disease

  46. malignant tumor of the cartilage

    chondrosarcoma

  47. inherited type of arthritis that commonly affects males

    Gout

  48. benign, neoplastic bone lesion caused by overproduction of bone at a joint

    exostosis

  49. benign bone lesion usually developing in teens or young adults

    osteoid osteoma

  50. most prevalent primary bone malignancy in pediatric patients

    Ewing's sarcoma

  51. benign, neoplastic bone lesion filled with clear fluid

    bone cyst

  52. injury to a large ligament located between the bases of the first and second metatarsal

    lisfranc joint injury

  53. condition affecting the sacroiliac joints and lower limbs of young men, especially the posterosuperior margin of the calcaneus

    Reiter's syndrome

  54. The formal name for "runner's knee" is

    chondromalacia patellae

  55. What is another name for osteomalacia?

    rickets

  56. asymmetric erosion of joint spaces with calcaneal erosion

    reiter syndrome

  57. uric acid deposits in joint spaces

    gout

  58. well-circumscribed lucency

    bone cyst

  59. small, round/oval density with lucent center

    osteoid osteoma

  60. narrowed, irregular joint surfaces with sclerotic articular surfaces

    osteoarthritis

  61. fragmentation or detachment of the tibial tuberosity

    Osgood-Schlatter disease

  62. ill-defined area of bone destruction with surrounding "onion peel"

    Ewing's sarcoma

  63. decreased bone density and bowing deformities of weight-bearing limbs

    osteomalacia

  64. Why is the CR angled 10 to 15 degrees toward the calcaneus for an AP projection of the toes?

    opens up the IP and MTP joints

  65. Where is the CR centered for an AP oblique projection of the foot?

    base of the third metatarsal

  66. Which projection is best for demonstrating the sesamoid bones of the foot?

    Tangential

  67. The foot should be dorsiflexed so that the plantar surface of the foot is __________ degrees from vertical for the sesamoid projection.

    15 to 20

  68. Why should the CR be perp to the metatarsals for an AP projection of the foot?

    opens up the MTP and certain intertarsal joints

  69. Rotation can be determined on a film of an AP foot projection by the near-equal distance between the _______ metatarsals.

    2nd - 5th

  70. Which oblique projection of the foot best demonstrates the majority of the tarsal bones?

    AP oblique with medial rotation

  71. Which oblique projection of the foot best demonstrates the navicular and the first and second cuneiforms with minimal superimposition?

    AP oblique with lateral rotation

  72. Which projection tends to place the foot into a truer lateral position: mediolateral or lateromedial?

    lateromedial

  73. Which type of study should be performed to best evaluate the condition of the longitudinal arches of the foot?

    AP & lateral weight-bearing projections

  74. How should the CR be angled from the long axis of the foot for the plantodorsal axial projection of the calcaneus?

    40 degree cephalad

  75. Which calcaneal structure should appear medially on a well-positioned plantodorsal projection?

    sustentaculum tali

  76. Where is the CR placed for a lateral projection of the calcaneus?

    1" inferior to medial malleolus

  77. Which joint surface of the ankle is not typically visualized with a correctly positioned AP projection of the ankle?

    lateral surface of joint

  78. Why should AP, 45 degree oblique, and lateral ankle radiographs include the proximal metatarsals?

    to demonstrate a possible fracture of the 5th metatarsal tuberosity

  79. How much (if any) should the foot and ankle be rotated for an AP mortise projection of the ankle?

    15 to 20 degrees medially

  80. Which projection of the ankle best demonstrates a possible fracture of a lateral malleolus?

    45 degree AP oblique with medial rotation

  81. What is the basic positioning routine for a study of the tibia and fibula?

    AP & lateral

  82. To include both joints for a lateral projection of the tibia and fibula for an adult, the tech may place the IR ________ in relation to the part.

    diagonally

  83. Where is the CR centered for an AP projection of the knee?

    1/2 inch distal to apex of patella

  84. What is the recommended CR angulation for an AP projection of the knee for a patient with thick thighs and buttocks?

    3 to 5 degrees cephalad

  85. Which basic projection of a knee best demonstrates the proximal fibula free of superimposition?

    AP oblique, 45 degree medial rotation

  86. What is the recommended CR placement for a lateral knee position on a tall, slender male patient with a narrow pelvis?

    5 degree cephalad

  87. How much flexion is recommended for a lateral projection of the knee?

    20 to 30 degrees

  88. Which positioning error is present if the distal borders of the femoral condyles are not superimposed on a radiograph of a lateral knee?

    improper angle of the CR

  89. Which positioning error is present if the posterior portions of the femoral condyles are not superimposed on a lateral knee radiograph?

    overrotation or underrotation of the knee

  90. Which special projection of the knee best demonstrates the intercondylar fossa?

    Holmblad

  91. How much flexion of the lower leg is required for the Camp-Coventry projection when the CR is angled 40 degrees caudad?

    40 degree flexion

  92. How much knee flexion is required for the PA axial projection (Holmblad method)?

    60 to 70 degrees

  93. What type of CR angle is required for the PA axial (Holmblad method)?

    None. CR is perp to IR.

  94. How much part flexion is recommended for a lateral projection of the patella?

    5 to 10 degrees

  95. How much CR angle from the long axis of the femora is required for a Merchant bilateral projection?

    30 degrees from horizontal

  96. How much part flexion is required for the following methods?
    a. Hughston method
    b. Settegast method

    • a. 45 to 55 degrees
    • b. 90 degrees

  97. What type of CR angle is required for the superoinferior sitting tangential method for patella?

    none

  98. can be performed using a wheelchair or lowered radiographic table

    Holmblad method (variation)

  99. patient prone; requires 90 degree knee flexion

    Settegast method

  100. patient prone with 40 to 50 degree knee flexion and with equal 40 to 50 degree caudad CR angle

    Camp-Coventry method

  101. IR is placed on a foot stool to minimize the OID

    superoinferior sitting tangential method

  102. patient prone with 45 degree knee flexion and 10 to 20 degree cephalad CR angle from long axis of lower leg

    Hughston method

  103. patient supine with IR resting on midthighs

    inferosuperior axial for patellofemoral joint

  104. patient supine with 40 degree knee flexion and with 30 degree caudad CR angle from horizontal

    Merchant method

  105. Which projection of the intercondylar fossa recommends using a curved cassette?

    Beclere method

  106. A radiograph of an AP projection of the foot reveals that the metatarsophalangeal joints are not open and the metatarsals are somewhat foreshortened. What was the positioning error involved?

    CR is not angled correctly

  107. A radiograph of an AP oblique-medial rotation projection of the foot reveals that the proximal third to fifth metatarsals are superimposed. What type of positioning error led to this radiographic outcome?

    overrotation of foot

  108. A radiograph of a plantodorsal axial projection of the calcaneus reveals considerable foreshortening of the calcaneus. What type of positioning modification is needed on the repeat exposure?

    increase cephalad angle of the CR to correctly elongate the calcaneus

  109. A patient with a possible Lisfranc joint injury. Which radiographic position(s) would best demonstrate this type of injury?

    AP and lateral weight-bearing projections

  110. A radiograph of a mediolateral knee projection demonstrates that the medial femoral condyle is projected inferior to the lateral condyle. What can the tech do to correct this problem during the repeat exposure?

    angle the CR 5 to 7 cephalad

  111. Where are the sesamoid bones of the foot most commonly located?

    plantar surface near head of first metatarsal

  112. What is the name of the tarsal bone found on the medial side of the foot between the talus and three cuneiforms?

    navicular

  113. Which tarsal bone is considered to be the smallest?

    intermediate cuneiform

  114. What is another term for the talocalcaneal joint?

    subtalar joint

  115. The distal tibial joint surface is called the

    tibial plafond

  116. The largest and strongest bone of the body is the _________

    femur

  117. A small depression located in the center of the femoral head is the ____________

    fovea capitis

  118. The lesser trochanter is located on the ___________ aspect of the proximal femur. It projects ____________ from the junction between the neck and shaft.

    medial; posteriorly

  119. List the four bones comprising the pelvis.

    • right hip bone
    • left hip bone
    • sacrum
    • coccyx

  120. List the two bones comprising the pelvic girdle.

    • right hip bone
    • left hip bone

  121. List the three divisions of the hip bone.

    • ilium
    • ischium
    • pubis

  122. All three divisions of the hip bone eventually fuse at the ___________ at the age of mid teens.

    acetabulum

  123. What are the two radiographic landmarks found on the ilium?

    • iliac crest
    • ASIS

  124. Which bony landmark is found on the most inferior aspect of the posterior pelvis?

    ischial tuberosity

  125. The ____________ of the pelvis is the largest foramen in the skeletal system.

    obturator foramen

  126. An imaginary plane that divides the pelvic region into the greater and lesser pelvis is called the

    pelvic brim

  127. Alternate term for the greater pelvis

    false pelvis

  128. Alternate term for the lesser pelvis

    true pelvis

  129. List the three aspects of the lesser pelvis, which also describe birth route during the delivery process.

    • inlet
    • cavity
    • outlet

  130. In the past, which radiographic examination was performed to measure the fetal head in comparison with the maternal pelvis to predict possible birthing problems?

    cephalopelvimentary exams

  131. List the characteristics of the male pelvis.

    • heart-shaped inlet
    • narrow ilia that are less flared
    • pubic arch angle of 75 degrees

  132. List the characteristics of the female pelvis.

    • wide, more flared ilia
    • pubic arch angle of 110 degrees
    • larger and more round-shaped inlet

  133. To achieve a true AP position of the proximal femur, the lower limb must be rotated _________ internally.

    15 to 20 degrees

  134. Which structures on an AP pelvis or hip radiograph indicate whether the proximal head and neck are in position for a true AP projection?

    lesser trochanter should not be visible

  135. Which physical sign may indicate that a patient has a hip fracture?

    involved foot is externally rotated

  136. Which condition is a common clinical indication for performing pelvic and hip examinations on a pediatric (newborn) patient?

    developmental dysplasia of hip (DDH)

  137. a degenerative joint disease

    osteoarthritis

  138. most common fracture in older patients because of high incidence of osteoporosis or avascular necrosis

    proximal hip fracture

  139. a malignant tumor of the cartilage of hip

    chondrosarcoma

  140. a disease producing extensive calcification of the longitudinal ligament of the spinal column

    ankylosing spondylitis

  141. a fracture resulting from a severe blow to one side of the pelvis

    pelvic ring fracture

  142. malignancy spread to bone via the circulatory and lymphatic systems or direct invasion

    matastatic carcinoma

  143. now referred to as developmental dysplasia of the hip

    congenital dislocation

  144. Where is the CR placed for an AP pelvis projection?

    midway between the ASIS and symphysis pubis

  145. Which specific positioning error is present when the left iliac wing is elongated on an AP pelvis radiograph?

    rotation toward left side

  146. Which specific positioning error is present when the left obturator foramen is more open than the right side on an AP pelvis radiograph?

    right rotation

  147. Trauma or Non trauma

    a. Danelius-Miller projection
    b. unilateral frog-leg
    c. modified Cleaves (bilateral frog-leg)
    d. Clements-Nakayama
    e. anterior pelvic bones

    • a. trauma
    • b. non trauma
    • c. non trauma
    • d. trauma
    • e. trauma

  148. Which projection is recommended to demonstrate the superoposterior wall of the acetabulum?

    PA axial oblique

  149. How many degrees are the femurs abducted (from the vertical plane) for the bilateral frog-leg projection?

    40 to 45 degrees

  150. Where is the CR placed for a unilateral frog-leg projection?

    midfemoral neck

  151. Where is the CR placed for an AP bilateral frog-leg projection?

    • 3" below level of ASIS
    • 1" superior to the symphysis pubis

  152. Which CR angle is required for the "outlet" projection (Taylor method) for a female patient?

    30 to 45 degrees cephalad

  153. Which type of pathologic feature is best demonstrated with the Judet method?

    acetabular fractures

  154. How much obliquity of the body is required for the Judet method?

    45 degrees

  155. What type of CR angle is used for a PA axial oblique (Teufel) projection?

    12 degrees cephalad

  156. How is the pelvis (body) positioned for a PA axial oblique (Teufel) projection?

    PA 35 to 40 degrees toward affected side

  157. How is the unaffected leg positioned for the axiolateral hip projection?

    flexed and elevated

  158. The modified axiolateral requires the CR to be angled __________ degrees posteriorly from horizontal.

    15 to 20

  159. Which special projection of the hip demonstrates the anterior and posterior rims of the acetabulum and the ilioischial and iliopubic columns?

    Posterior Oblique of Acetabulum (Judet method)

  160. What is the name of a special AP axial projection of the pelvis used to assess trauma to pubic and ischial structures?

    AP Axial Outlet Projection (Taylor method)

  161. Axiolateral (inferosuperior)

    Danelius-Miller

  162. modified axiolateral

    Clements-Nakayama

  163. bilateral or unilateral frog-leg

    modified Cleaves

  164. PA axial oblique for acetabulum

    Teufel

  165. AP axial for pelvic "outlet" bones

    Taylor

  166. posterior oblique for acetabulum

    Judet

  167. What is the optimal amount of hip abduction applied for the unilateral "frog-leg" projection to demonstrate the femoral neck without distortion?

    20 to 30 degrees from vertical

  168. How much is the IR tilted for the modified axiolateral projection of the hip?

    15 degrees from vertical

  169. A radiograph of an AP pelvis projection reveals that the lesser trochanters are readily demonstrated on the medial side of the proximal femurs. The patient is ambulatory but has a history of early osteoarthritis in both hips. Which positioning modification needs to be made to prevent this positioning error?

    rotate the lower limbs 15 to 20 degrees internally to place the proximal femurs in a true AP position

  170. A radiograph of an AP pelvis reveals that the right iliac wing is forshortened as compared with the left side. Which specific positioning error has been made?

    the patient is rotated toward the left - LPO

  171. A very young child comes to the radiology dept. with a clinical history of DDH. What is the most common positioning routine for this condition?

    AP pelvis & bilateral "frog-leg" projections

Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?

Chapter 7.

In which projection of the foot are the interspaces between the first and second Cuneiforms best demonstrated?

procedure.

Which projection of the foot will show the cuboid in profile?

Foot PA Oblique (Medial Rotation) Cuboid is shown in profile. Position of patient Lateral recumbent position on affected side. Fully extend leg. Turn patient toward prone position until plantar surface of foot forms an angle of 45 degrees to plane of IR.

How should the foot be positioned to demonstrate the ankle mortise?

Aligning the 5th toe to the center of the calcaneus is a practical way to gauge optimal internal rotation needed to demonstrate the mortise joint. Another way to ensure correct positioning is by rotating the leg internally until the central line of the collimation field is in line with the 5th metatarsal.

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