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Seeley's Essentials of Anatomy and Physiology9th EditionAndrew Russo, Cinnamon VanPutte, Jennifer Regan 512 solutions Match the description to the correction lesion or distribution name: Multiple lesions blending together Confluent or coalescent Match the description to the correction lesion or distribution name: Flat discoloration less than 1 cm in diameter Macule Match the description to the correction lesion or distribution name: Circumscribed area of skin edema Wheal Match the description to the correction lesion or distribution name: Narrow linear crack into epidermis, exposing dermis Fissure Match the description to the correction lesion or distribution name: Vesicle-like lesion with purulent content Pustule Match the description to the correction lesion or distribution name: Flat discoloration greater than 1 cm in diameter Patch Match the description to the correction lesion or distribution name: Raised lesion, larger than 1 cm, maybe same or different color from the surrounding skin Plaque Match the description to the correction lesion or distribution name: Netlike cluster Reticular Match the description to the correction lesion or distribution name: Loss of epidermis and dermis Ulcer Match the description to the correction lesion or distribution name: Loss of skin markings and full skin thickness Atrophy Match the description to the correction lesion or distribution name: Skin thickening usually found over pruritic or friction areas Lichenification Match the description to the correction lesion or distribution name: In a ring formation Annular How many grams of a topical cream or ointment are needed for a single application to the hands? A. 1 B. 2 Hands, head, face, anogenital region requires 2 g in one application How many grams of a topical cream or ointment are needed for a single application to an arm? A. 1 C. 3 One arm, anterior or posterior truck requires 3 g in one application How many grams of a topical cream or ointment are needed for a single application to the entire body? A. 10 to 30 B. 30 to 60 You write a prescription for a topical agent and anticipate the greatest rate of absorption when it is applied to the: A. palms of the hands C. face The face, axillae, and genital area are quite permeable allowing greater absorption of medication than less permeable areas such as the extremities and trunk. You prescribe a topical medication and wat it to have maximum absorption, so you choose the following vehicle: A. gel D. ointment In general, the less viscous the vehicle containing a topical medication, the less of the medication is absorbed. As a result, medications in a gel or lotion is absorbed in smaller amounts than medication contained in a cream or ointment. One of the mechanism of action of a topical corticosteroid preparation is as: A. an antimitotic C. a vasoconstrictor Relative potency is based on vasoconstrictive activity meaning the most potent steroid (betmethasone [class1]) has significantly greater vasoconstricting action than the least potent agent (hydrocortisone [class 7]) To enhace the potency of a topical corticosteroid the prescribe recommends that the patient apply the preparation: A. to dry skin by
gentle rubbing B. and cover with an occlusive dressing Which of the following is the least potent topical corticosteroid? A. Betamethasone dipropionate 0.1% (Diprosone) C. Hydrocortisone 2.5% Antihistamines exhibit therapeutic effect by: A. inactivating circulating histamine C. blocking activity at histamine receptor site A possible adverse effect with the use of a first-generation antihistamine such as diphenhydramine in an 80-year-old man is: A. urinary retention A. urinary retention First-generation antihistamines (diphenhydramine [Benadryl], chlorpheniramine [Chlor-Trimeton]) readily cross the blood-brain barrier causing sedation and should therefore be taken with caution. Caution its anticholinergic activity in elderly and men with BPH. Which of the following medications is likely to cause the most sedation? A. Chlorpheniramine A. Chlorpheniramine Clinical features of bullous impetigo include: A. intense itch B. vesicular lesions The likely causative organisms of nonbullous impetigo in a 6-ear-old child include: A. H. influenzae and S. pneumoniae B. group A streptococcus and S. aureus The spectrum and antimicrobial activity of mupirocin (Bactroban) includes: A. primarily gram-negative
organisms B. select gram-positive organisms An impetigo lesion that becomes deeply ulcerated is known as: A. cellulitis C. ecthyma First-line treatment of impetigo with less than 5 lesions of 1-2 cm in diameter on the legs in a 9-year-old girl is: A. topical mupirocin A. topical mupirocin When impetigo results in a few lesions, topical therapy is indicated with mupirocin as the preferred agent. An oral antimicrobial option for the treatment of MSSA includes all of the following except: A. amoxicillin A. amoxicillin Because S. aureus currently accounts for most cases of bullous impetigo and for a substantial portion of nonbullous infections, antimicrobials with a gram-positive coverage and stability in the presence of beta-lactamase, such as dicloxacillin or a first-generation or second-generation cephalosporin are now often used as first-line choice, particularly with MSSA. Which of the following is an oral antimicrobial option for the treatment of a community-acquired MRSA cutaneous infection? A. amoxicillin D. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole Another option would be clindamycin You see a kindergartner with impetigo and advise that she can return _____ hours after initiating effective antimicrobial therapy. A. 24 A. 24 Note that family members should be checked for lesions. The use of which of the following medications contributes to the development of acne vulgaris? A. lithium A. lithium First-line therapy for acne vulgaris with closed comedones includes: A. oral antibiotics C. benzoyl peroxide When prescribing tretinoin (Retin-A), the NP advises the patient to: A. use it with benzoyl peroxide to minimize irritating effects B. use a sunscreen because the drug is photosensitizing In the treatment of acne vulgaris, which lesions respond best to topical antibiotic therapy? A. open comedones C. inflammatory lesions You have initiated therapy for an 18-year-old man with acne vulgaris and have prescribed doxycycline. He returns in 3 weeks, complaining that his skin is "no better." Your next action is to: A. counsel him that 6 to 8 weeks of treatment is often needed before significant improvement is achieved A. counsel him that 6 to 8 weeks of treatment is often Who is the best candidate for isotretinoin (Accutaine) therapy? A. a 17-year-old patient with pustular lesions and poor response to benzoyl peroxide B. a 20-year-old patient with cystic lesions who has tried various therapies with minimal effect In a 22-year-old woman using isotretinoin (Accutane) therapy, the NP ensures follow-up to monitor for all of the following tests except: A. hepatic enzymes D. platelet count Leanoard is an 18-year-old man who has been taking isotretinoin (Accutane) for the treatment of acne for the past 2 months. Which of the following is the most important question for the clinician to ask at his follow-up office visit? A. Are you having any problems remembering to take your medications? D. Have you noticed any recent changes in your mood? A 14-year-old male presents with acne consisting of 25 comedones and 20 inflammatory lesions with no nodules. This patient can be classified as having: A. mild acne B. moderate acne In a 13-year-old female patient with mild acne and who experiences an inadequate response to benzyol peroxide treatment, an appropriate treatment option would be to: A. add at topical retinoid A. add at topical retinoid A common infective agent in domestic pet cat bites is: A. viridans streptococcus sp. B. Pasteurella multocida A 28-year-old woman presents to your practice with chief complaint of a cat bit sustained on her right ankle. Her pet cat had bitten her after she inadvertently stepped on its paw while she was in her home. Her cat is 3 years old. is up-to-date on immunizations, and does not go outside. Physical exam reveals pinpoint superficial puncture wounds on the right ankle consistent with the presenting history. She washed the wound with soap and water immediately and asks if the she needs additional therapy. Treatment for this patient's cat bite would should include standard wound care with the addition of: A. oral erthyromycin C. oral amoxicillin-clavulanate A 24-year-old man arrives at the walk-in center. He reports that he was bitten in the thigh by a raccoon while walking in the woods. The exam reveals a would that is 1 cm deep on his right thigh. The wound is oozing bright red blood. Your next best action is to: A. administer high-dose parenteral penicillin C. give rabies IG and rabies vaccine A significant rabies risk is associated with a bite from all of the following except: A. humans A. humans You see a 33-year-old male with a minor dog bite on his hand. The exam reveals a superficial wound on the left palm. The dog is up-to-date on immunizations. In deciding whether to initiate antimicrobial therapy. you consider that _____ of dog bites become bacterially infected. A. 5% A. 5% You see a 52-year-old woman who was bitten by a rat while opening a dumpster. The exam reveals a wound approximately 1 cm deep that is oozing bright red blood. Treatment of this patient should include standard wound care with the addition of: A. rabies IG D. oral amoxicillin-clavulanate Rat bites do not require rabies prophylaxis. You see a 28-year-old man who was involved in a fight approximately 1 hour ago with another person. The patient states, "He bit me int he arm." Exam of the left forearm reveals an open wound consistent with this history. Your next best action is to: A. obtain a culture and sensitivity of the wound site C. irrigate the wound and debride as needed A patient presents with a painful, blistering thermal burn involving the first, second, and third digits of his right hand. The most appropriate plan of care is to: A. apply an anesthetic cream to the area and open the blisters C. refer the patient to burn specialty care Gram-negative bacteria that commonly cause burn wound infections include all of the following except: A. P. aeruginosa D. H. influenzae Which of the following is recommend for preventing a burn wound infection? A. Topical corticosteroid B. Topical silver sulfadiazine You examine a patient with a red, tender thermal burn that has excellent capillary refill involving the entire surface of the anterior right leg. The estimated involved body surface area (BSA) is approximately: A. 5% B. 9% A burn that is about twice as large as an adult's palmar surface of the hand including the fingers encompasses a BSA of approximately _____% A. 1 B. 2 Match the following: first-degree burn A. Affected skin blanches with ease A. Affected skin blanches with ease Match the following: second-degree burn A. Affected skin blanches with ease B. Surface is raw and moist Match the following: third-degree burn A. Affected skin blanches with ease C. Affected area is white and leathery A mother brings in the clinic her 3-year-old daughter, who presents with dry red patches on her face around the eyes. The mother has observed her daughter constantly rubbing the area, which has caused swelling around the eyes. Physical exam is consistent with atopic dermatitis. The NP considers that this is a diagnosis that: A. requires a skin culture to confirm contributing bacterial organisms D. is usually made by clinical assessment alone Type I hypersensitivity reactions, such as atopic dermatitis, involve the action of which antibodies binding to receptor sites on mast cells? A. IgG C. IgE During type I hypersensitivity reactions, histamine released from degraded mast cells causes all of the following except: A. vasodilation C. enhanced sebum production The most important aspect of skin care for individuals with atopic dermatitis is: A. frequent bathing with antibacterial soap C. application of lubricants Treatment includes avoiding offeding agents minimizing skin dryness by limiting soap and water exposure, and using lubricants consistently. One of the most common trigger agents for contact dermatitis is: A. exposure to nickel A. exposure to nickel Common causes include exposure to metals including nickel, rubber additives to shoes and gloves, some toiletries, and topical medications A common site for atopic dermatitis in an adult is on the: A. dorsum of the hand D. flexor surfaces A common site for atopic dermatitis in an infant is: A. the diaper area B. the face In infants, the face is often involved whereas the diaper area is usually spared due to the occlusive damp environment In counseling a patient with atopic dermatitis, you suggest all of the following can be used to alleviate symptoms of a flare except: A. the use of oral antihistamines B. applying a heating pad on the affected region for 30 minutes The mechanism of action of pimecrolimus (Elidel) is the treatment of atopic dermatitis is as a/an: A. immunomodulator A. immunomodulator This med along with tacrolimus (Protopic) blocks T-cell stimulation by antigen-presenting cells and inhibit mast cell activation. Note that these medications have an advisory about the potential for increased cancer risk. When counseling a patient about the use of tacrolimus (Protopic) or pimecrolimus (Elidel), you mention that: A. this is the preferred atopic dermatitis treatment in infants B. there is a possibility of increased cancer risk with its use You see a 34-year-old man with atopic dermatitis localized primarily on the arms who complains of severe itching. The condition becomes worse at night and interferes with his sleep. You recommend: A. taking a bedtime dose of antihistamine A. taking a bedtime dose of antihistamine Hydroxyzine (Atarax) seems to provide better relief of itching than other antihistamines. Certirizine (Zyrtec) is a less sedating antihistamine that is a metabolite of hydroxyzine. A 38-year-old woman with advanced HIV disease presents with a chief complaint of a painful, itchy rash over her trunk. Exam reveals linear vesicular lesions that do not cross the midline and are distributed over the posterior thorax. This presentation is most consistent with: A. herpes zoster A. herpes zoster A Tzanck smear that is positive for giant multinucleated cells was taken from a lesion caused by: A. herpes virus A. herpes virus What is the most effective protection against shingles? A. Previous episode of chickenpox as a child C. Receipt of varicella-zoster immunizations Shingles most commonly invovle the dermatomes of the : A. legs and pubic area D. thorax When caring for an adult with an outbreak of shingles, you advise that: A. there is no known treatment for this condition B. during outbreaks, the chickenpox (varicella) virus is shed Analgesia options for a patient with shingles can include all of the following except: A. topical lidocaine gel 5% with oral acetaminophen D. fentanyl transdermal patch and a topical medium-potency corticosteroid on the affected area Risk factors for the development of postherpetic neuralgia include: A. age younger than 50 years at the time of the outbreak B. severe prodromal symptoms Treatment option in postherpetic neuralgia include all of the following except: A. injectable methylprednisolone A. injectable methylprednisolone The zoster vaccine (Zostavax) is a(n): A. inactivated/killed virus vaccine C. live, attenuated vaccine Characteristics of onychomycosis include all of the following except: A. it is readily diagnosed by clinical examination A. it is readily diagnosed by clinical examination Because trauma and other conditions can cause a similar appearance, confirmation for hyphae of the nail scrapings mixed with KOH is important, though there is a high rate of false-negatives. Fungal cultures should be obtained from pulverized nail scrapings or clippings Oral antifungal treatment options for onychomycosis include all of the following except: A. itraconazole C. metronidazole When prescribing itraconazole (Sporanox), the NP considers that: A. the drug is a CP-450 3A4 inhibitor A. the drug is a CP-450 3A4 inhibitor When prescribing pulse dosing with itraconazole for the treatment for fingernail fungus, the clinician realizes that: A. a treatment increase in hepatic enzymes is commonly seen with its use A. a treatment increase in hepatic enzymes is commonly seen with its use All oral antifungals have hepatotoxicity potential and may cause an increase in hepatic enzyme levels. Pulse therapy reduces this risk. An example of pulse therapy: When prescribin fluconazole, the NP considers that it is a CP-450: A. 3A4 inhibitor B. 2CP inhibitor In diagnosing onychomycosis, the NP considers that: A. nails often have a single midline groove C. microscopic exam reveals hyphae In counseling a patient on the use of topical products to treat nail fungal infections, the NP considers that: A. nail lacquers, such as ciclopirox olamine 8% solution (Penlac), offer similar effectiveness to oral antifungals C. topical products have limited penetration through the nail matrix to reach the site of infection A 78-year-old resident of a LTC facility complains of generalized itchiness at night that disturbs her sleep. Her exam is consistent with scabies. Which of the following do you expect to find on exam? A. excoriated papules on the interdigital area A. excoriated papules on the interdigital area In counseling a patient with scabes, the NP recommends all of the following methods to eliminate the mite from bedclothes and other items except: A . wash items in hot water C. soak items in cold water for at least 1 hour Which of the following represents the most accurate patient information when using permethrin (Elimite) for treating scabies? A. To avoid systemic absorption, the medication should be applied over the body and rinsed within 1 hour C. Itch often persists for a few weeks after successful treatment Permethrin should be applied from the neck down and should be washed off 8 to 14 hours later. Despite effective treatment, pruritus remains in many individuals due to the presents of dead mites and their waste trapped in the skin. This debris is removed from the body over a few weeks in which the itchiness then subsides. Oral antihistamines and medium-potency hydrocortisone should be offered during this time. When advising the patient about scabies contagion, you inform her that: A.
mites can live for many weeks away from the host B. close personal contact with an infected person is usually needed to contract this disease The use of lindane (Kwell) to treat scabies is discouraged because of its potential for: A. hepatotoxicity B. neurotoxicity Psoriasis vulgaris is a chronic skin disease caused by: A. bacterial colonization C. accelerated mitosis You examine a patient with psoriasis vulgaris and expect to find the following lesions: A. lichenified areas in flexor areas B. well-demarcated plaques on the knees Classic presentation of psoriasis are silvery scales with and underlying red plaque found on extensor surfaces such as elbows and knees. Psoriatic lesions arise from: A. decreased skin exfoliation B. rapid skin cell turnover, leading to decreased Anthralin (Drithocreme) is helpful in treating psoriasis because it has what kind of activity? A. antimitotic A. antimitotic Treatment options in generalized psoriasis vulgaris include all of the following except: A. psoralen with ultraviolet A light (PUVA) therapy D. systemic corticosteroids
Which of the following is not a potential adverse effect with long-term high-potency topical corticosteroid use? A. lichenification A. lichenification Biological agents to treat psoriasis, such as infliximab and etanercept, work by block the action of: A. IL-9 C. TNF-alpha For severe, recalcitrant psoriasis that affects more than 30% of the body, all of the following treatments are recommended except: A. methotrexate B. topical anthralin (Drithocreme) The use of TNF modulators for the treatment of psoriasis is associated with an increased risk for: A. gastrointestinal disorders D. reactivation of latent TB Seborrheic dermatitis is likely caused by: A accelerated mitosis of skin cells C. an inflammatory reaction to Malassezia sp. on skin Which of the following best describe seborrheic dermatitis lesions? A. flaking lesions in the antecubital and popliteal B. greasy, scaling lesions in the nasolabial folds Seborrheic dermatitis is a chronic, recurrent skin condition found in areas with a high concentration of sebaceous glands such as the scalp, eyelid margins, nasolabial folds, ears, and upper truck that is believed to be caused by an inflammatory reaction to Malassezia species, a yeast form present on the scalp of all humans Among the following, who is at greatest risk of developing seborrheic dermatitis? A. a 15-year-old boy residing in a rural
setting D. a 72-year-old man with Parkinson disease Seborrhea is oftenfound in patients who are immunocompromised or chronically ill (eg. elderly adults and people with Parkinson disease In counseling a patient with seborrheic dermatitis on the scalp about efforts to clear lesions, you advise her to: A. use ketoconazole shampoo A. use ketoconazole shampoo A 64-year-old man with seborrhea mentions that his skin condition is "better in the summer when I get outside more and much worse in the winter." You respond: A. Sun exposure is a recommended therapy for the treatment of this condition B. Although sun exposure is noted to improve the skin lesions associated with seborrhea, its use as a therapy is potentially associated with an increased rate of skin cancer You see a 67-year-old man with seborrheic dermatitis that has failed to respond to treatment with ketoconazole shampoo. An appropriate second-line treatment option can include all of the following except: A. oral fluconazole D. high-potency topical corticosteroid High-potency topical corticosteroid use is discouraged because of the risk of skin atrophy, telangiectasia formation, corticosteroid-induced acne, and striae A 49-year-old man presents with a skin lesion suspicious for malignant melanoma. You describe the lesion as having: A. deep black-brown coloring throughout D. variable pigmentation "ABCDE" The use of sunscreen has minimal impact on reducing the risk of which type of skin cancer? A. squamous cell carcinoma C. malignant melanoma A 72-year-old woman presents with a newly formed, painless, pearly, ulcerated nodule with an overlying telangiectasis on the upper lip. This mostly likely represents: A. an actinic keratosis B. a basal cell carcinoma "PUT ON sunscreen" Which of the following represents the most effective method of cancer screening? A. skin exam A. skin exam When examining a mole for malignant melanoma, all of the following characteristics can indicate a melanoma except: A. asymmetry with nonmatching sides D. a lesion that has been present for at least 2 years The most common site for squamous and basal cell carcinoma include: A. palms of hands and soles of feet D. the face and scalp A 56-year-old truck driver presents with a new nodular, opaque lesion with nondistinct borders on his left forearm. This most likely represents a(n): A. actinic keratosis B. squamous cell carcinoma "NO SUN" Risk factors for malignant melanoma include: A. asian ancestry B. history of blistering sunburn Definitive diagnosis of skin cancer requires: A. skin exam C. biopsy Nonsurgical options for the treatment of squamous and basal cell carcinoma include all of the following except: A. cryotherapy D. oral hydroxyurea A skin biopsy results indicate presence of malignant melanoma for a 52-year-old woman. You recommend: A. excision of the entire lesion D. consultation with a skin cancer expert to direct next best action Skin lesions associated with actinic keratoses can be described as: A. a slightly rough, pink or flesh-colored lesion in a sun-exposed area A. a slightly rough, pink or flesh-colored lesion in a sun-exposed area Can evolve into SCC. On examination, appreciate the sandpaper-like quality. Treatment options for actinic karatoses include topical: A. vitamin D derivative cream B. 5-fluorouracil Recommended nonpharmacological options to treat actinic keratosis include all except: A. chemical peel D. Mohs micrographic surgery Mohs micrographic surgery is recommend in the presence of skin tumors with aggressive histologic patters or invasive features Type I hypersensitivity reaction is mediated through: A. TNF-alpha binding to T
cells C. IgE antibodies binding to mast cells Which of the following do you expect to find in the assessment of the person with urticaria? A. eosinophilia A. eosinophilia Common clinical conditions included in the atop subgroup of type I hypersensitivity reactions include all of the following except: A. allergic rhinitis B. rosacea A 24-year-old woman presents with hive-form linear lesions that develop over areas where she has scratched. These resolve within a few minutes. This most likely represents: A. dermagraphism A. dermagraphism An urticarial lesion is usually described as a: A. wheal A. wheal Common clinical manifestations of anaphylaxis can include all of the follow except:
A. upper airway edema D. HTN Common triggers for anaphylaxis include exposure to certain types of all of the follow except: A. medications C. pet dander You see a 28-year-old man who is having an anaphylactic reaction following a bee sting and its experiencing trouble breathing. Your initial response is to administer: A. oral antihistamine B. injectable epinephrine When counseling a person who has a 2-mm verrucaform lesion on the hand, you advise that: A. bacteria are the most common cause of these lesions B. lesions usually resolve without therapy in 12 to 24 months The mechanism of action of imiquimod is as a/an: A. immunomodulator A. immunomodulator The most common HPV types associated with cutaneous, nongenital warts include: A. 1, 2, and 4 A. 1, 2, and 4 The HPV responsible for nongenital warts is mainly passed through: A. contact with infected surfaces C. person to person contact A 62-year-old woman presents with 2 days after noticing a "bug bit" on her left forearm. Exam reveals a warm, red, edematous area with sharply demarcated borders. The patient is otherwise healthy with no fever. This most likely represents: A. contact dermatitis
C. cellulitis Which of the following statements is most accurate regarding cellulitis? A. Insect bites, abrasion, or other skin trauma can be the origin of cellulitis A. Insect bites, abrasion, or other skin trauma can be the origin of cellulitis The most common causative organisms in cellulitis are: A. E. coli and H influenzae C. group A beta-hemolytic streptococci and S. aereus Which of the following is the best treatment option for cellulitis when risk of infection with a methicillin-resistant pathogen is considered low? A. dicloxacillin A. dicloxacillin You see a 36-year-old man with no chronic health problems who presents with 2 furuncles, each around 4 cm in diameter, on the right anterior thigh. These lesions have been present for 3 days, slightly increasing in size during this time. HE has no fever or other systemic symptoms. You advise the following: A. incision and drainage of the lesion A. incision and drainage of the lesion In an febrile patient with an abscess less than 5 cm in diameter, the first-line treatment of
community-acquired skin and soft tissue infection is I&D and localized care such as warm soaks. A woman was treated as an inpatient for a serious soft tissue infection with parenteral linezolid and now is being seen on day 3 of her illness and is being discharged to home. She is feeling better and appears by examination to be clinically improved. Culture results reveal MRSA, sensitive to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, linezolid, daptomycin, vancomycin, and clindamycin and resistant to cephalothin and erythromycin. Her antimicrobial therapy should be completed with: A. oral cephalexin B. oral trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole
T/F Skin lesions infected by community-acquired MRSA (CA-MRSA) often occur spontaneously on intact skin F T/F CA-MRSA is most commonly spread from one person to another via airbone pathogen transmission F CA-MRSA is most commonly spread from person to person contact as well as contact with inanimate objects.
T/F All CA-MRSA strains are capable of causing necrotizing infection F T/F The mechanism of resistance of MRSA is via the production of beta-lactamase F T/F If a skin and soft tissue infection does not improve in 48-72 hours with antimicrobial therapy, infection with a resistant pathogen is virtually the only cause F T/F Most acute-onset necrotic skin lesions reported in North America are caused by spider bites F T/F In an adult with BMI greater than 40 kg/m2 who is being treatd with TMP-SMX for CA-MRSA, the recommended dose is 2 tablets BID T An 88-year-old community-dwelling man who lives alone has limited mobility because of OA. Since his last office visit 2 months ago, he has lost 5% of his body weight and has developed angular cheilitis. You expect to find the following on exam: A. fissuring and cracking at the corners of the mouth A. fissuring and cracking at the corners of the mouth A common cause of angular cheilitis is infection by: A. E. coli C. Candida sp. Risk factors for angular cheilitis in adults include all of the following except: A. advanced age D. obesity First-line therapy for angular cheilitis therapy includes the use of: A. metronidazole gel C. topical nystatin A 29-year-old woman has a sudden onset of right sided facial asymmetry. She is unable to close her right eyelid tightly or frown or smile on the affected side. Her exam is otherwise unremarkable. This likely represents paralysis of CN: A. III C. VII Which of the following represents the most important diagnostic test for the patient in the previous question? A. CBC and WBC with differential B. Serum testing for Borrelia burgdorferi infection Individuals with Bell's palsy should undergo careful examination and serological testing for Lyme disease To transmit the bacterium that causes Lyme disease, an infected tick must feed on a human host for at least: A. 5 min D. 24 hours Lyme disease is caused by the bacterium: A. Borrelia burgdorferi A. Borrelia burgdorferi Which of the following findings is often found in a person with stage 1 Lyme disease? A. peripheral neuropathic
symptoms D. single painless annular lesion Stage 1 (early localized disease): This is a mild flue-like illness often with a single annular lesion with central clearing (erythema migrans). The lesions i rarely pruritic or painful. S/s can resolve in 3 to 4 weeks without treatment Which of the following findings is often found in a person with stage 2 Lyme disease? A. Peripheral neuropathic symptoms B. AV heart block Stage 2 (early disseminated infection): Typically months later, the classic rash may reappear with multiple lesions, usually accompanied by arthralgias, myalgia, HA, and fatigue. Less commonly, cardiac manifestations such as heart block and neurological findings such as acute facial nerve paralysis (Bell's palsy) and aseptic meningitis may be present. With Bell's palsy, careful examination and serological testing for Lyme disease should be performed. Regression of symptoms can occur without treatment Stage 3 Lyme disease, characterized by joint pain and neuropsychiatric symptoms, typically occurs how long after initial infection? A. 1 month C. 1 year Stage 3 (late persistent infection): Starting approximately 1 year after the initial infection, musculoskeletal s/s usually persists, ranging from joint pain with no objective findings to frank arthritis with evidence of joint damage. Neuropsychiatric sx can appear, including memory problems, depression, and neuropathy Preferred antimicrobials for the treatment of adults with Lyme disease include all of the following except: A. a
tetracycline B. an aminoglycoside Effective treatment include doxycycline, cefuroxime axetil (Ceftin), amoxicillin, and select macrolides. Which of the following would not be recommended to prevent Lyme disease when visiting a Lyme-endemic area? A. Wear long pants and long-sleeved shirts C. If a tick bite occurs, wait until after consulting a HCP before removing the insect All of the following characteristics about bed bugs are true except: A. they can be found in furniture, carpeting, and floorboards D. they prefer to harbor unsanitary environments All of the following statements are true regarding skin reactions to bed bugs except: A. skin reactions are more common with repeated exposure to bed bugs D. systemic skin reactions frequently occur following an initial exposure to bed bug bites You see a 42-year-old woman with a cluster of red, itchy spots on her left arm. She informs you that she recently stayed at a hotel that she later discovered was infested with bed bugs. You advise her that: A. she should immediately begin a regiment of oral antibiotics B. the reaction is usually self-limiting and should resolve in 1 to 2 weeks Signs that bed bugs are present in a home include all of the following except: A. small drops of fresh blood on floorboards A. small drops of fresh blood on floorboards Nonchemical means to eliminated bed bugs can include all of the following except: A.
vacuuming crevices C. isolating the infested area from any hosts for at least 2 weeks All of the following organisms have been implicated in the development of rosacea except: A. viruses A. viruses patients with rosacea are recommended to use daily: A. sunscreen A. sunscreen Topical therapies for treatment of rosacea include all of the following except: A. metronidazole cream C. medium-potency corticosteroid cream Oral antimicrobial treatments recommended for rosacea include all of the following except: A. metronidazole B. levofloxacin Note that oral antibiotics are considered more for their anti-inflammatory properties rather than their antimicrobial activity Which of the following is not a recommended option to make cosmetic improvements for phymatous rosacea? A. laser peel B. ablative laser surgery Non-ablative laser therapy can be effective in remodeling the dermal connective tissue and improving the epidermal barrier. Which of the following are disorders of the integumentary system?Disorders Affecting the Integumentary System. Yeast.. Athlete's foot.. Pressure ulcers.. Infection.. Sunburn.. Skin cancer.. What are the most common symptoms of integumentary system?What are the symptoms of skin diseases?. Discolored skin patches (abnormal pigmentation).. Dry skin.. Open sores, lesions or ulcers.. Peeling skin.. Rashes, possibly with itchiness or pain.. Red, white or pus-filled bumps.. Scaly or rough skin.. Is the integumentary system an organ system?The integumentary system is an organ system consisting of the skin, hair, nails, and exocrine glands.
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Match the treatment to the characteristic description its infectious Integumentary disorder Quizlet
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