The strategy adopted by retailers and wholesalers for creating their private brand is called ___

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When a retailer decides to launch a brand of its own in place of the manufacturer the brand is called *?
When two brand names from different companies use the name of the same product this branding strategy is called?
When a company adopts the same brand name for different brands in a particular product line is called as?
What do you mean by the word brand Mcq?

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Brand management Q&A- multiple choice and some sample answers for final- Keller brand management book

1. COURSE REVIEW SUBJECT: STRATEGIC BRAND MANAGEMENT CHAPTER 1: BRANDS AND BRAND MANAGEMENT GENERAL CONCEPTS 1. The earliest signs of branding in Europe were the medieval ________ requirement that craftspeople put trademarks on their products. a. kings’ b. churches’ c. consumers’ d. governments’ e. guilds’ Answer: e Difficulty: Medium 2. The American Marketing Association defines a ________ as “a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of them, intended to identify the goods or services of one seller or group of sellers and to differentiate them from those of competitors.” a. holistic product concept b. product concept c. service concept d. brand e. brand image Answer: d Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 3. At the heart of a successful brand is ________, backed by creatively designed and executed marketing. a. Price b. Promotion c. a great product or service d. a great slogan e. a brand concept Answer: c Difficulty: Easy 4. The strategic brand management process involves four main steps. Which of the following would NOT be among those steps? a. Measuring consumer brand knowledge
2. b. Identifying and establishing brand positioning c. Planning and implementing brand marketing d. Measuring and interpreting brand performance e. Growing and sustaining brand value Answer: a Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills 5. Consumers learn about brands through ________ and product marketing programs. a. the mass media b. past experiences with the product c. the sales force d. shopping bots e. independent information sources Answer: b Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 6. ________ is endowing products and services with the power of a brand. a. Brand image b. The branding concept c. Branding d. Brand positioning e. Brand partitioning Answer: c Difficulty: Easy TRUE/FALSE 7. Consumers may evaluate identical products differently depending on how they are branded. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 8. Physical goods, services, and stores can be branded, but ideas and people cannot. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 9. Brand knowledge is indicated when the consumer refuses to purchase competitive brands. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 10. One of the advantages of having a strong brand is the ability to have a more elastic consumer response to price decreases of the brand. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium
3. APPLICATION QUESTIONS 11. Marketers of successful 21st-century brands must excel at ________- the design and implementation of marketing activities and programs to build, measure, and manage brands to maximize their value. a. promotional planning b. brand personification c. strategic brand management d. brand awareness e. competitive differential advantage Answer: c Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 12. Coca-Cola, Calvin Klein, Gucci, Tommy Hilfiger, Marlboro, and others have become leaders in their product categories by understanding ________ and desires and creating relevant and appealing images around their products. a. consumer perceptions b. consumer motivations c. consumer behaviors d. consumer demographics e. consumer market segments Answer: b Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking SHORT ANSWER 13. Assume you are a marketing manager that wishes pursue a process of strategic brand management. List the four main steps that you would most likely go through to accomplish this task. Suggested Answer: The steps would be: (1) identifying and establishing brand positioning; (2) planning and implementing brand marketing; (3) measuring and interpreting brand performance; and, (4) growing and sustaining brand value. Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills 14. How does the American Marketing Association define the term brand? Suggested Answer: A brand, according to the AMA, is “a name, term, sign, symbol, or design, or a combination of them, intended to identify the goods or services of one seller or group of sellers and to differentiate them from those of competitors.”
4. Difficulty: Easy 15. What valuable functions can brands perform for the firm? Suggested Answer: Brands simplify product handling and tracing and help to organize inventory and accounting records. They also offer the firm legal protection for unique features or aspects of the product. Brand loyalty provides predictability and security of demand for the firm, and it creates barriers to entry that make it difficult for other firms to enter the market. Loyalty can also translate into customer willingness to pay higher prices. Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 16. Distinguish between brand identity and brand image. Suggested Answer: Identity is the way a company aims to identify or position itself or its product. Image is the way the public actually perceives them. Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 17. Scott Bedbury, author of A New Brand World, cites eight principles on which 21st-century branding should be built. List four of those principles. Suggested Answer: Bedbury’s eight principles are: (1) relying on brand awareness has become marketing fool’s gold; (2) you have to know it before your can grow it; (3) always remember the Spandex rule of brand extension; (4) great brands establish enduring customer relationships; (5) everything matters; (6) all brands need good parents; (7) big is no excuse for being bad; and, (8) relevance, simplicity, and humanity. Students may choose from any four of the eight. See chapter section for additional discussion. Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills CHAPTER 2: CUSTOMER-BASED BRAND EQUITY & BRAND POSITIONING CUSTOMER-BASED BRAND EQUITY GENERAL CONCEPTS 1. Brand ________ is the added value endowed to products and services. a. Loyalty b. Equity c. Preference
5. d. Satisfaction e. Benefits Answer: b Difficulty: Medium 2. The premise of ________ models is that the power of a brand lies in what customers have seen, read, learned, thought, and felt about the brand over time. a. product-based brand equity b. service-based brand equity c. functional-based brand equity d. mission-driven brand equity e. customer-based brand equity Answer: e Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills 3. ________ can be defined as the differential effect that brand knowledge has on consumer response to the marketing of that brand. a. Mission-driven brand equity b. Customer-based brand equity c. Product-driven brand equity d. Service-driven brand equity e. Function-based brand equity Answer: b Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 4. If consumers do not demonstrate different responses to different brands within a product category, then the products are essentially commodities or generic versions and competition will probably be based on ________. a. emotional attachment b. brand awareness c. advertising expenditure d. price e. prestige Answer: d Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking 5. When a consumer expresses thoughts, feelings, images, experiences, beliefs, and so on that become associated with the brand, the consumer is expressing brand ________. a. Knowledge b. Loyalty c. Behavior d. Preference
6. e. Equity Answer: a Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 6. The challenge for marketers in building a strong brand is ________. a. ensuring that customers have the right type of experiences with products and their marketing programs to create the desired brand knowledge b. pricing the product at a point that maximizes sales volumes . c. minimizing the number of people to whom the product is targeted in order to provide consumers with a personalized experience d. retain as many customers as possible in order to minimize the costs and pressure associated with continually generating new leads e. maximizing customer value Answer: a Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills 7. Strong brands possess all of the following marketing advantages EXCEPT ________. a. greater loyalty b. larger margins c. guaranteed profits d. improved perceptions of product performance e. more elastic consumer response to price decreases Answer: c Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 8. ________ is what drives the differences that manifest themselves in brand equity. a. Brand image b. Consumer income c. Consumer purchasing power d. Consumer knowledge e. Brand perception Answer: d Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 9. When a marketer expresses his or her vision of what the brand must be and do for consumers, they are expressing what is called ________. a. a brand promise b. a brand mission c. brand equity d. a brand position e. a brand concept Answer: a Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
7. 10. All of the following are considered to be among the “six brand building blocks” EXCEPT ________. a. brand salience b. brand performance c. brand imagery d. brand feelings e. brand pride Answer: e Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 11. With respect to the “six brand building blocks,” ________ focus on customers’ own personal opinions and evaluations. a. brand salience b. brand performance c. brand imagery d. brand judgments e. brand resonance Answer: d Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 12. With respect to the brand building pyramid, at which of the following “building block levels” would we expect the consumer to develop an intense, active loyalty? a. Salience b. Imagery c. Feelings d. Judgments e. Resonance Answer: e Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking TRUE/FALSE 13. Brand resonance is associated with how a brand name sounds when said by spokespersons or consumers. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills 14. Brand salience relates to how often and easily the brand is evoked under various purchase or consumption situations. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 15. Brand imagery is the consumers’ emotional responses and reactions with respect to the brand.
8. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium 16. In the brand resonance pyramid, the lowest level is associated with what is called salience. Answer: True Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills ESSAY 17. Explain the concept of customer-based brand equity. Suggested Answer: Customer-based brand equity is the different effect that brand knowledge has on customer response to the marketing of that brand. A brand has positive customer-based brand equity when consumers react more favourably to the product and the way it is marketed when the brand is identified than when it is not (say, when the product is attributated to a fictious name or is unnamed). Difficulty: Medium 18. What causes brand equity to exist? How do marketers create it? Suggested Answer: Customer-based brand equity occurs when the consumer has a high level of awareness and familiarity with the brand and holds strong, favorable and unique brand associations in memory Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 19. The creation of significant brand equity involves reaching the top or pinnacle of the brand pyramid. List and briefly characterize the six components of the brand resonance pyramid. Suggested Answer: The six components of the brand resonance pyramid include brand: (1) salience—relates to how often and easily the brand is evoked under various purchase or consumption situations; (2) performance—relates to how the product or service meets customers’ functional needs; (3) imagery—deals with the extrinsic properties of the product or service, including the ways in which the brand attempts to meet the customers’ psychological or social needs; (4) judgments—focus on consumers’ own personal opinions and evaluations; (5) feelings— customers’ emotional responses and reactions with respect to the brand; and, (6) resonance— refers to the nature of the relationship that customers have with the brand and the extent to which customers feel that they are “in sync” with the brand. Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking 20. Describe the meaning and function of a brand audit.
9. Suggested Answer: To better understand their brands, marketers often need to conduct brand audits. A brand audit is a consumer-focused exercise that involves a series of procedures to assess the health of the brand, uncover its sources of brand equity, and suggest ways to improve and leverage its equity. The brand audit can be used to set strategic direction for the brand. As the result of this strategic analysis, the marketer can develop a marketing program to maximize long-term brand equity. Marketers should conduct a brand audit whenever they consider important shifts in strategic direction. Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills APPLICATION QUESTIONS 21. During the Pepsi Challenge campaign, launched while Coke was clearly the market leader by sales, consumers were given blind taste tests of Pepsi and Coke and asked which flavor they preferred. Apparently, people preferred the taste of Pepsi in blind taste tests, but bought Coke when they visited the store. This is an example of Coke’s ________. a. customer-based brand equity b. mission-driven brand equity functional-based brand equity c. service-based brand equity d. attribute-based brand equity Answer: a Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills 22. A marketing manager stresses to a newly hired brand manager the importance of having a strong brand. All of the following would be advantages that the marketing manager might stress to his subordinate EXCEPT ________. a. improved perceptions of product performance b. greater loyalty c. less vulnerability to marketing crises d. lower margins e. possible licensing opportunities Answer: d Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 23. Apple Computer achieves incredible brand loyalty largely by delivering on its ________ to “create great things that change people’s lives” by combining superior design functionality and style in its products. a. brand promise b. brand dynamic c. brand resonance
10. d. brand entity e. umbrella branding Answer: a Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills 24. If a manager is looking for a “report card” on past performance of a brand, he or she should turn to an examination of the brand ________. a. Strength b. Compatibility c. Stature d. Image e. Dominance Answer: c Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 25. Matt always thinks of Die Hard batteries when he thinks of a dependable car battery. This is an example of brand ________. a. Salience ( b. Imagery c. Judgments d. Feelings e. Scope Answer: a Difficulty: Medium SHORT ANSWER 26. Your company desires to have positive customer-based brand equity. What has to occur for this to happen? Suggested Answer: A brand is said to have positive customer-based brand equity when consumers react more favorably to a product and the way it is marketed when the brand is identified as compared to when it is not. Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Reflective Thinking 27. Volvo has a strong brand association with respect to brand knowledge when consumers perceive it as a very safe car (safety). Explain the concept of brand knowledge. Suggested Answer:
11. Brand knowledge consists of all the thoughts, feelings, images, experiences, beliefs, and so on that become associated with the brand. In particular, brands must create strong, favorable, unique brand associations with customers. Difficulty: Medium 28. List five advantages shared by other strong brands that you will most likely need to emulate to accomplish this objective. Suggested Answer: Strong brands have the following advantages: (1) improved perceptions of product performance; (2) greater loyalty; (3) less vulnerability to competitive marketing actions; (4) less vulnerability to marketing crisis; (5) larger margins; (6) more inelastic consumer response to price increases; (7) more elastic consumer response to price decreases; (8) greater trade cooperation and support; (9) increased marketing communications effectiveness; (10) possible licensing opportunities; and, (11) additional brand extension opportunities. Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking 29. How does consumer knowledge play a role in the success of new products associated with existing brands? Suggested Answer: Brand knowledge created by marketing investments dictates appropriate future directions for the brand. Consumers will decide, based on what they think and feel about the brand, where they believe the brand should go and grant permission to any marketing action or program. Many new products can fail because consumers find them inappropriate extensions for the brand. Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking BRAND POSITIONING GENERAL CONCEPTS 30. As part of the strategic brand management process, each company and offering must represent a distinctive ________ in the mind of the target market. a. Promotion b. Cell c. big idea d. ad
12. e. organizational concept Answer: c Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 31. All marketing strategy is built on STP—segmentation, targeting, and ________. a. Positioning b. Product c. Planning d. Promotion e. Performance Answer: a Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 32. ________ is the act of designing the company’s offering and image to occupy a distinctive place in the minds of the target market. a. Positioning b. Product conceptualization c. Promotion presentation d. Performance imaging e. Preproduct launching Answer: a Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Analytic Skills 33. The result of positioning is the successful creation of ________, a cogent reason why the target market should buy the product. a. an award winning promotional campaign b. a customer-focused value proposition c. a demand channel d. everyday low pricing e. strategic window of opportunity Answer: b Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking 34. A starting point in defining a competitive frame of reference for a brand positioning is to determine ________—the products or sets of products with which a brand competes and which function as close substitutes. a. functional membership b. competitive field c. category membership d. value membership e. demand field Answer: c Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
13. 35. Which of the following terms is most closely associated with the following statement: “attributes or benefits consumers strongly associate with a brand, positively evaluate, and believe that they could not find to the same extent with a competitive brand”? a. Brand image b. Points-of-difference c. Points-of-parity d. Points of value e. Brand concept Answer: b Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 36. ________ are associations that are not necessarily unique to the brand but may in fact be shared with other brands. a. Points-of-parity b. Points-of-difference c. Brand cells d. Brand positions e. Points of competitive field Answer: a Difficulty: Medium 37. To achieve a point-of-parity (POP) on a particular attribute or benefit, a sufficient number of consumers must believe that the brand is “________” on that dimension. a. most excellent b. neutral c. marginal d. good enough e. service based Answer: d Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 38. The preferred approach to positioning is to inform consumers of a brand’s membership before stating its ________. a. point-of-parity b. point-of-difference c. point of conflict d. point of weakness e. point of reference Answer: b Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
14. 39. There are three main ways to convey a brand’s category membership: announcing category benefits, ________, and relying on the product descriptor. a. overt publicity b. industry trade press c. buzz marketing d. preference positions e. comparing to exemplars Answer: e Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Communication 40. A brownie mix might claim to taste great and support this claim by including high-quality ingredients or by showing users delighting in its consumption, thereby communicating its membership of the baked desserts category through ________. a. announcing category benefits b. comparing to exemplars c. relying on the product descriptor d. communicating deliverability variables e. identifying counterexamples Answer: a Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Communication 41. Points-of-parity are driven by the needs of category membership and ________. a. Loyalty b. large margins c. guaranteed profits d. the necessity of negating competitors’ PODs (points-of-difference): . e. the creation of PODs (points-of-difference) Answer: d Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking 42. ________ are typically the least desirable level to position a brand’s points-of-difference, in part because competitors can easily copy them. a. Benefits b. Attitudes Values c. Attributes d. Messages Answer: d Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 43. Marketers must decide at which level to anchor the brand’s points-of-differences. At the lowest level are ________. For example, Dove soap can talk about the fact that it is one- quarter cleansing cream. a. brand values
15. b. brand attributes c. brand benefits brand specifications d. brand partitions Answer: b Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 44. One common difficulty in creating a strong, competitive brand positioning is that many of the attributes or benefits that make up the points-of-parity and points-of-difference are ________. a. negatively correlated b. positively correlated c. neither positive nor negatively correlated d. inversely correlated e. unable to be correlated Answer: a Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills 45. All of the following would be considered to be among examples of negatively correlated attributes and benefits EXCEPT ________. a. low price versus high quality b. taste versus low calories c. supply versus demand d. powerful versus safe e. nutritious versus good tasting Answer: c Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Reflective Thinking 46. Which of the following desirability criteria asks a question such as “Is the positioning preemptive, defensible, and difficult to attack?” when determining a POD (point-of- difference)? a. Feasibility b. Communicability c. Sustainability d. Knowledgeable value orientation Answer: c Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills 47. For a point-of-difference to possess ________, target consumers must find it unique and superior. a. Distinctiveness b. Communicability c. Relevance
16. d. Believability e. Feasibility Answer: a Difficulty: Medium 48. ________ is a company’s ability to perform in one or more ways that competitors cannot or will not match. a. Positioning b. Deliverability c. Competitive advantage d. Distribution e. Differentiation Answer: c Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 49. The obvious means of differentiation, and often most compelling ones to consumers, relate to aspects of the ________. a. Price b. distribution process c. promotions d. product and service e. sales team responsible for the product or service Answer: d Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking TRUE/FALSE 50. Positioning is the act of designing the company’s offering and image to occupy a distinctive place in the minds of the target market. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Analytic Skills 51. Category membership is seen as the products or sets of products with which a brand competes and which function as close substitutes. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 52. Associations that make up points-of-difference are based exclusively on product features. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking 53. Points-of-parity are attributes or benefits consumers strongly associate with a brand, positively evaluate, and believe that they could not find to the same extent with a competitive brand.
17. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 54. Points-of-parity come in two basic forms: category and competitive. Answer: True Page: 270 Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 55. Category points-of-parity may change over time due to technological advances, legal developments, or consumer trends. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Reflective Thinking 56. Once a company has identified a brand’s category membership, consumers do not question the validity of that brand’s membership of the category. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 57. The preferred approach to positioning is to inform consumers of a brand’s membership before stating its point-of-difference. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium 58. If Barry compares his organization’s products to those of leaders in the field, then he is conveying category membership by “comparing to exemplars”. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Communication 59. A good illustration of negatively correlated attributes or benefits is good tasting versus bad tasting. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 60. Brands can differentiate their products only on real, relevant attributes. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 61. There are three consumer desirability criteria for PODs (points-of-difference): price, value, and respectability. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 62. A firm must be sufficiently committed and willing to devote enough resources to create an enduring positioning for its points-of-difference to be considered deliverable. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 63. Consumers are typically content to accept the trade-offs inherent in negatively correlated attributes or benefits.
18. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking ESSAY 64. With respect to positioning, explain points-of-parity and points-of-difference. Suggested Answer: Points-of-difference (PODs) are attributes or benefits consumers strongly associate with a brand, positively evaluate, and believe that they could not find to the same extent with a competitive brand. Points-of-parity (POPs), on the other hand, are associations that are not necessarily unique to the brand but may in fact be shared with other brands). Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 65. There are three main ways to convey a brand’s category membership. What are those three ways? Suggested Answer: The three main ways to convey a brand’s category membership is: (1) announcing category benefits; (2) comparing to exemplars; and (3) relying on the product descriptor. Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Communication 66. In choosing points-of-difference, one of the primary considerations is that consumers find points-of-difference desirable. There are three key consumer desirability criteria for points- of-difference. What are those three criteria? Suggested Answer: The three consumer desirability criteria are: (1) relevance; (2) distinctiveness; and (3) believability. Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 67. Brands can be differentiated on the basis of many variables; however, four differentiation strategies are emphasized in the text. List and briefly characterize the three differentiation strategies. Suggested Answer: The four differentiation strategies are: (1) personnel differentiation—companies can gain a strong competitive advantage through having better-trained people; (2) channel differentiation—companies can achieve competitive advantage through the way they design
19. their distribution channels’ coverage, expertise, and performance; and (3) image differentiation—buyers respond differently to company and brand images. Difficulty: Hard APPLICATION QUESTIONS 68. “It’s not delivery, it’s DiGiorno!” This ad campaign helped DiGiorno’s pizza become the frozen pizza leader. Which of the following terms is most associated with the company’s promotional success strategy? a. Price leader b. Value relationships c. Vertical integration d. Superior quality control e. Clever positioning Answer: e Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 69. ________ may be based on virtually any type of attribute or benefit. For example, FedEx uses “guaranteed overnight delivery” and Nike uses “performance.” a. Points-of-parity b. Points-of-difference c. Points of conflict d. Points of defensibility e. Points of service Answer: b Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 70. Consumers might not consider a travel agency truly a travel agency unless it is able to make air and hotel reservations, provide advice about leisure packages, and offer various ticket payment and delivery options. These service elements are considered ________. a. competitive points-of-difference b. competitive points-of-parity c. category points-of-difference d. category points-of-parity e. conceptual points-of-parity Answer: d Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 71. As a marketing manager, which of the following would be the best purpose for your organization’s competitive points-of-parity? a. To point out competitive points-of-difference b. To emphasize competitive points-of-difference
20. c. To rationalize competitive points-of-difference d. To globalize competitive points-of-difference e. To negate competitive points-of-difference Answer: e Difficulty: Medium 72. If your task was to construct a positioning statement for a new product that your company was considering as an addition to your product portfolio, what would be the best first step for you to take? a. State the product’s cost b. State the product’s membership in a category c. State who manufactured the product d. State the image of the product e. State who would distribute the product Answer: b Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking 73. Tums claims to have the most acid-reducing components of any antacid. In what way is the brand’s category membership being conveyed? a. Comparing to exemplars b. Relying on the product descriptor c. Announcing category benefits d. Focusing on reliability e. Persuasion based on believability Answer: c Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Communication 74. A marketer that wants to anchor a point-of-difference for Dove soap on brand benefits might emphasize which of the following? a. The soap is one-quarter cleansing cream b. Dove products include bar soaps and shampoos c. Dove soap helps users have softer skin. d. The Dove brand is widely available e. None of the above Answer: c Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 75. Assume that you are in a position to develop your organization’s points-of-difference for an upcoming promotional campaign. Which of the following sets of consumer desirability criteria would best fit your promotional task? a. Value, location, service b. Loyalty, customization, status
21. c. Value, reliability, dependability d. Relevance, distinctiveness, believability e. Licensing opportunities, promotional protection, and believability Answer: d Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills 76. Splenda sugar substitute became a category leader by differentiating itself on its authenticity as a product derived from sugar. This POD demonstrates ________ because target consumers found it to be unique and superior. a. Believability b. Relevance c. Feasibility d. Communicability e. Distinctiveness Answer: e Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 77. A marketing manager asks a subordinate, “Can the favorability of the new brand association we just created in our recent ad campaign be reinforced and strengthened over time?” Which of the following delivery criteria used for choosing points-of-difference would be most appropriate to the question asked? a. Relevance b. Communicability c. Sustainability d. Feasibility e. Comparisons Answer: c Difficulty: Hard 78. A ________ should follow the form: To (target group and need), our (brand) is (the concept) that (what the point-of-difference is or does). a. feasibility statement b. positioning statement c. breakaway branding campaign d. brand specification e. category membership mechanism Answer: b Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 79. Which of the following is NOT a negatively correlated attribute and benefit? a. Efficacious versus mild b. Varied versus simple c. Powerful versus safe
22. d. Nutritious versus good tasting e. Low price versus low quality Answer: e Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills SHORT ANSWER 80. A starting point in defining a competitive frame of reference for a brand positioning is to determine category membership. How would you define category membership? Suggested Answer: Category membership includes the products or sets of products with which a brand competes and which function as close substitutes. Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Analytic Skills 81. With respect to points-of-parity, explain why a product does not have to be equal to a competitive product to be compared to that product. Suggested Answer: To achieve a point-of-parity on a particular attribute or benefit, a sufficient number of consumers must believe that the brand is “good enough” on that dimension. There is a range of tolerance with points-of-parity. The brand does not have to be seen as equal to competitors, but consumers must feel that the brand does well enough on that particular attribute or benefit. Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 82. As a company seeks to establish a category membership designation, how does the company approach points-of-difference? What is done first? Suggested Answer: The preferred approach to positioning is to inform consumers of a brand’s membership before stating its point-of-difference. Presumably, consumers need to know what a product is and what function it serves before deciding whether it dominates the brands against which it competes. Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 83. There are three main ways to convey a brand’s category membership. Assume you were an automobile designer for Ford and wished to position a new “sports wagon.” Which of the three ways to convey the brand’s category membership would be most appropriate for your task?
23. Suggested Answer: The most appropriate strategy would be to rely on the product descriptor (e.g., name of the product, product’s function, or category position). See chapter section for more details. Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Communication 84. As the marketer of a new soft drink, what are the three levels at which you might anchor your brand’s points of difference? Suggested Answer: The three levels at which a marketer might anchor a brand’s points-of-difference are: (1) brand attributes, (2) brand benefits, and (3) brand values. Students may furnish their own examples of these types of points-of-difference as they might pertain to a soft drink. Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 85. There are three key consumer desirability criteria for creating points-of-difference. When the Westin Stamford hotel in Singapore advertised that it was the world’s tallest hotel, it attempted to create a point-of-difference. The hotel may not have been successful in its attempt to create its POD because of which consumer desirability criteria associated with PODs? Suggested Answer: There is a question of relevance. Is staying in the world’s tallest hotel a necessary need for most tourists or are there other factors that are more important? Difficulty: Hard 86. Delivering on promises made in points-of-difference is very important in successful marketing. There are three deliverability criteria stressed in the text with respect to PODs. What are those three criteria? Suggested Answer: The three criteria are feasibility, communicability, and sustainability. Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 87. How might a company address consumers’ desires to maximize two negatively correlated attributes or benefits? Suggested Answer:
24. The best approach is to develop a product or service that performs well on both each devoted to a different brand attribute or benefit; linking the company to any kind of entity that possesses an attribute or benefit as a POP or POD; and attempting to convince consumers that the negative relationship between attributes and benefits is in fact positive. Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Communication
25. CHAPTER 3: BRAND RESONANCE AND BRAND VALUE CHAIN 1) These four steps of the brand resonance model represent a set of fundamental questions that customers invariably ask about brands—at least implicitly. The four questions are relating to brand identity, brand meaning, brand responses and_____________________. a) brand image b) brand relationships c) brand association d) brand value e) brand consistence Answer: b 2) The six brand building blocks based on the brand resonance model are brand salience, brand performance, brand imagery, brand judgment, brand feeling and____________________. a) brand resonance b) brand passsion c) brand hierarchy d) brand portfolio e) brand coherence Answer: a 3) ______________ of brand awareness measures how likely it is for a brand element to come to mind, and the ease with which it does so. A brand we easily recall has a deeper level of brand awareness than one that we recognize only when we see it. a) The width b) The height c) The dimensions d) The meaning e) The depth Answer: e 4) _______________ of brand awareness measures the range of purchase and usage situations in which the brand element comes to mind and depends to a large extent on the organization of brand and product knowledge in memory. a) The width b) The height c) The breath d) The meaning
26. e) The depth Answer: c 5) Typically, marketers assume that a product hierarchy often exists, with product class information at the highest level, product category information at the second-highest level, product type information at the next level, and _________________ at the lowest level. a) brand attribute b) brand information c) brand performance d) brand meaning e) brand feelings Answer: b 6) Creating brand meaning includes establishing a _______________—what the brand is characterized by and should stand for in the minds of customers. a) brand image b) brand information c) brand performance d) brand salience e) brand feelings Answer: a 7) The product itself is at the heart of brand equity, because it is the primary influence on what consumers experience with a brand, what they hear about a brand from others, and what the firm can tell customers about the brand in their communications. a) Promotions b) Product c) Price d) Distribution e) Others Answer: b 8) _______________ describes how well the product or service meets customers’ more functional needs. a) Brand imagery b) Brand Feelings c) Brand performance d) Brand resonance e) Others Answer: c
27. 9) Five important types of attributes and benefits often underlie brand performance, as follows: (1) Primary ingredients and supplementary features; (2) Product reliability, durability, and serviceability; (3) Service effectiveness, efficiency, and empathy; (4) Style and design; and (5)____________. a) Promotions b) Product c) Distribution d) Price e) Others Answer: d 10) Brand imagery refers to more intangible aspects of the brand, and consumers can form __________ associations directly from their own experience or indirectly through advertising or by some other source of information, such as word of mouth. a) usage b) product c) performance d) awareness e) Imagery Answer: e 11) Through consumer experience or marketing activities, brands may take on personality traits or human values and, like a person, appear to be “modern,” “old-fashioned,” “lively,” or “exotic.” Five dimensions of brand personality are sincerity, excitement, competence, sophistication, and _______. a) ruggedness b) liberty c) down-to-earth d) honest e) wholesome Answer: a 12) We can distinguish ___________ as either brand judgments (what customers think about the brand) or brand feelings (what customers feel about the brand), that is, in terms of whether they arise from the “head” or from the “heart,” a) Brand value b) Brand response c) Brand meaning d) Brand resonance
28. e) Brand awareness Answer: b 13) _______________ are customers’ personal opinions about and evaluations of the brand, which consumers form by putting together all the different brand performance and imagery associations. Customers may make all types of judgments with respect to a brand, but four types are particularly important: judgments about quality, credibility, consideration, and superiority. a) Brand value b) Brand response c) Brand judgment d) Brand trust e) Brand awareness Answer: c 14) __________________are consumers’ overall evaluations of a brand and often form the basis for brand choice. They generally depend on specific attributes and benefits of the brand. For example, consider Hilton hotels. A consumer’s attitude toward Hilton depends on how much he or she believes the brand is characterized by certain associations that matter to the consumer for a hotel chain, like location; room comfort, design, and appearance; service quality of staff; recreational facilities; food service; security; prices; and so on. a) Brand perception b) Brand response c) Brand judgment d) Brand attitudes e) Brand behavior Answer: d 15) Customers may also form judgments about the company or organization behind the brand. _____________describes the extent to which customers see the brand as credible in terms of three dimensions: perceived expertise, trustworthiness, and likability. In other words, credibility measures whether consumers see the company or organization behind the brand as good at what it does, concerned about its customers, and just plain likable. a) Brand perception b) Brand response c) Brand judgment d) Brand attitudes e) Brand credibility
29. Answer: e 16) No matter how highly they regard the brand or how credible they find it, unless they also give it serious _____________ and deem it relevant, customers will keep a brand at a distance and never closely embrace it. a) consideration b) Perception c) credibility d) awareness e) imagery Answer: a 17) ________________ measures the extent to which customers view the brand as unique and better than other brands. It is absolutely critical to building intense and active relationships with customers and depends to a great degree on the number and nature of unique brand associations that make up the brand image. a) Brand consideration b) Brand superiority c) Brand credibility d) Brand awareness e) Brand imagery Answer: b 18) ______________ are customers’ emotional responses and reactions to the brand. They also relate to the social currency evoked by the brand and can be mild or intense and can be positive or negative. a) Brand consideration b) Brand superiority c) Brand feelings d) Brand judgment e) Brand imagery Answer: c 19) More and more firms are attempting to tap into more consumer emotions with their brands. The following are six important types of brand-building feelings: Warmth, Fun, Excitement, Security, Social approval, ___________. a) sincerity b) excitement c) competence d) Self-respect
30. e) sophistication Answer: d 20) Brand resonance describes the nature of this relationship and the extent to which customers feel that they are “in sync” with the brand. Resonance is characterized in terms of intensity, or the depth of the psychological bond that customers have with the brand, as well as the level of activity engendered by this loyalty. We can break down these two dimensions of brand resonance into four categories: Behavioral loyalty, Attitudinal attachment, Sense of community, _____________. a) Community participation b) Repeated purchases c) Information collection d) Passive engagement e) Active engagement Answer: e 21) We can gauge ______________ in terms of repeat purchases and the amount or share of category volume attributed to the brand, that is, the “share of category requirements.” In other words, how often do customers purchase a brand and how much do they purchase? a) Behavioral loyalty b) Attitudinal attachment c) Sense of community d) Active engagement e) Passive engagement Answer: a 22) Resonance requires a strong personal attachment. Customers should go beyond having a positive attitude to viewing the brand as something special in a broader context. For example, customers with a great deal of ______________________to a brand may state that they “love” the brand, describe it as one of their favorite possessions, or view it as a “little pleasure” that they look forward to. a) Behavioral loyalty b) Attitudinal attachment c) Sense of community d) Active engagement e) Passive engagement Answer: b 23) The brand may also take on broader meaning to the customer by conveying a _____________. Identification with a brand community may reflect an important social
31. phenomenon in which customers feel a kinship or affiliation with other people associated with the brand, whether fellow brand users or customers, or employees or representatives of the company. A brand community can exist online or offline. a) Behavioral loyalty b) Attitudinal attachment c) Sense of community d) Active engagement e) Passive engagement Answer: c 24) Finally, perhaps the strongest affirmation of brand loyalty occurs when customers demostrate active engagement, that is, they are willing to invest time, energy, money, or other resources in the brand beyond those expended during purchase or consumption of the brand. For example, customers may choose to join a club centered on a brand, receive updates, and exchange correspondence with other brand users or formal or informal representatives of the brand itself. a) Behavioral loyalty b) Attitudinal attachment c) Sense of community d) Active engagement e) Passive engagement Answer: d 25) The brand resonance model also reinforces a number of important branding tenets, five of which are particularly noteworthy. They are: (1) Customers Own the Brands, (2) Don’t Take Shortcuts with Brands, (3) Brands Should Have a Duality, (4) Brands Should Have Richness Brand and (5) --------------------------------------. a) Company Should Implement Internal Branding b) Companies Should Be Competitors Focused c) Companies Should Respect the Environment d) Companies Should Demonstrate Social Responsibility e) Brand Resonance Provides Important Focus Answer: e 26) Developing a strong positioning and building brand resonance are crucial marketing goals. To better understand the ROI of marketing investments, however, another tool is necessary. The ___________ is a structured approach to assessing the sources and outcomes of brand equity and the manner by which marketing activities create brand value. a) brand value chain
32. b) brand resonance model c) brand equity model d) brand positioning model e) brand evaluation model Answer: a 27) The brand value chain model assumes that the brand value creation process goes through four stages: (1) Marketing program investment, (2) the customer mind-set as the result of the associated marketing activity, (3) brand performance is produced by this mind-set, (4) ____________as the outcomes of the investment community’s assessment. a) brand value chain b) Shareholder value c) Customer value d) brand value e) Synergized value Answer: b 28) The brand value chain model assumes that the brand value creation process must go through four value stages, in addition, a number of linking factors intervene between these stages. These linking factors determine the extent to which value created at one stage transfers or “multiplies” to the next stage. Three sets of multipliers are: the program quality multiplier, the marketplace conditions multiplier, and the _______________________. a) Product multiplier b) Pricing multiplier c) investor sentiment multiplier d) Channel multiplier e) Promotion multiplier Answer: c 29) The ability of the marketing program to affect the customer mind-set will depend on its quality. One handy way to remember some key considerations is through the acronym DRIVE, that is, Distinctiveness, Relevance, Integrated, Value, __________. a) Expertise b) Elegance c) Electiveness d) Excellence e) None of the above Answer: d
33. 30) In its totality, the brand resonance model captures a wide range of aspects of the customer mind-set. To provide a concise summary, a shorter “5 As” list can highlight important measures of the customer mind-set as suggested by the resonance model: Brand Awareness, Brand Associations, Brand Attitudes, Brand Attachment, Brand ________________. a) Image b) performance c) Judgment d) Feelings e) Activity Answer: e 31) __________________ Multiplier can be defined as the extent to which value created in the minds of customers affects market performance depends on factors beyond the individual customer. a) Marketplace Conditions b) Marketing program quality c) Investor sentiment d) Competition degree e) Innovation level Answer: a 32) Marketplace Conditions Multiplier consists of three factors including (1) Competitive superiority, (2) Channel and other intermediary support, and (3) ________________. a) Market size b) Customer size and profile c) Market type d) Intertype competition e) None of the above Answer: b 33) To measure market performance of a brand, marketers normally rely on the following criteria: Price premiums, Price elasticities, Market share, ___________, Cost structure, Profitability a) Promotion effectiveness b) Competitor retreat c) Expansion success d) Channel development e) None of the above
34. Answer: c 34) Financial analysts and investors consider a host of factors in arriving at their brand valuations and investment decisions. Among them are the following: Market dynamics, Growth potential, Risk profile, and ___________________. a) Financial market b) Exchange rate c) P/E Ratio d) Brand contribution e) Discount rate Answer: d 35) Based on all available current and forecasted information about a brand,as well as many other considerations, the financial marketplace formulates opinions and assessments that have very direct financial implications for the brand value. Three particularly important indicators are the stock price, the price/earnings multiple, and overall market capitalization for the firm. a) Program multiple b) Marketplace Conditions c) Investor Sentiment Multiple d) Brand multiple e) price/earnings multiple Answer: e
35. CHAPTER 4: CHOOSING BRAND ELEMENTS GENERAL CONCEPTS 1. From a marketing management perspective, there are three main sets of brand equity drivers. Which of these drivers was most applicable when McDonald’s decided to use the “golden arches” and Ronald McDonald as symbols of their brand? a. The product and all accompanying marketing activities and supporting marketing programs b. The service and all accompanying marketing activities and programs c. The initial choices for the brand elements or identities making up the brand d. Associations indirectly transferred to the brand by linking it to some other entity e. The profitability associated with brand development Answer: c Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 2. ________ are those trademarkable devices that serve to identify and differentiate the brand. a. Brand elements b. Brand value c. Brand perception d. Brand image e. Brand tracks Answer: a Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 3. Six brand elements assist in brand building. Which of the following would NOT be among those preferred brand elements? a. Adaptable b. Protectible c. Memorable d. Likable e. Subliminal nature Answer: e Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 4. If a brand element can be used to introduce new products in the same or different categories, the brand element is said to be ________. a. Memorable b. Meaningful c. Likeable
36. d. Transferable e. Adaptable Answer: d Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 5. Brand names are not the only important brand element. Often, ________, the more important it is that brand elements capture the brand’s intangible characteristics. a. the less concrete brand benefits are b. the more concrete brand benefits are c. the more varied brand perceptions are d. the less varied brand perceptions are e. the more sophisticated brand benefits are Answer: a Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Reflective Thinking 6. With respect to powerful brand elements, a ________ is an extremely efficient means to build brand equity. The element can function as useful “hooks” or “handles” to help consumers grasp what the brand is and what makes it special. a. Spokesperson b. product shape c. slogan d. patent e. promotional descriptor Answer: c Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills TRUE/FALSE 7. A few good illustrations of power brand elements are Nike’s “swoosh” logo, the empowering “Just Do It” slogan, and the mythological “Nike” name based on the winged goddess of victory. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 8. One of the selection criteria for creating a successful brand element is that it should be protectible. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 9. If a brand element has the characteristic of being memorable, the brand is credible and suggestive of its corresponding category. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills
37. ESSAY 10. There are six criteria used in creating brand elements. The first three can be characterized as “brand building” in terms of how brand equity can be built through the judicious choice of a brand element. The latter three are more “defensive” and are concerned with how the brand equity contained in the brand element can be leveraged and preserved in the face of different opportunities and constraints. List and briefly characterize the six criteria. Suggested Answer: The six elements are: (1) memorable, (2) meaningful, (3) likable, (4) transferable, (5) adaptable, and (6) protectible. For characterizations, see chapter materials. Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills APPLICATION QUESTIONS 11. The famous “Plop, plop, fizz, fizz! Oh, what a relief it is!” campaign is a good example of what is called a brand ________. a. Element b. Bond c. Visual d. Personification e. Perception Answer: a Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 12. Although initially an online book seller, Amazon.com chose not to call itself “Books ‘R’ Us,” enabling it eventually to sell a wide range of products. This naming decision makes the brand element more ________. a. Memorable b. Meaningful c. Likable d. Protectible e. Transferable Answer: e Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 13. The face of Betty Crocker has been updated several times in the past 75 years without losing any of its brand recognition. This brand element is ________. a. Likeable b. Transferable c. adaptable
38. d. protectible e. memorable Answer: c Difficulty: Medium SHORT ANSWER 14. As a brand manager you would like to have your brand (brand name) to be protectible. Explain what you mean by “protectible” and give an illustration. Suggested Answer: As a brand manager you would need to consider the questions of “How legally protectible is the brand element?” “How competitively protectible?” and “Can it be easily be copied?” It is important that names that become synonymous with product categories—such as Kleenex, Kitty Litter, Jell-O, Scotch Tape, Xerox, and Fiberglass—retain their trademark rights and not become generic. Answers on examples may vary. The above are a few illustrations that demonstrate the protectible characteristic. Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking
39. CHAPTER 5: DESIGNING MARKETING PROGRAMS TO BUID BRAND EQUITY GENERAL CONCEPTS 1) A ________ can be defined as any information-bearing experience a customer or prospect has with the brand, the product category, or the market that relates to the marketer’s product or service. a) brand value b) brand element c) brand trait d) brand character e) brand contact Answer: e Difficulty: Medium 2) The rapid expansion of ________ has created opportunities to personalize marketing. a) target marketing b) globalization c) the Internet d) standardization e) CD technology Answer: c Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Use of IT 3) ________ is about making sure that the brand and its marketing are as relevant as possible to as many customers as possible. a) Personalizing marketing b) Segmenting marketing c) Brand imagery d) Emotionalizing brands e) Rationalizing brands Answer: a Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 4) The traditional “marketing-mix” concept and the notion of the “four Ps” may not adequately describe modern marketing programs. ________ is about mixing and matching marketing activities to maximize their individual and collective effects. a) Personalizing marketing b) Individualizing marketing c) Globalizing marketing d) Institutionalizing marketing
40. e) Integration marketing Answer: e Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 5) For a brand to succeed, marketers must “walk the walk” and ensure that employees and marketing partners do the same. Marketers often must use ________ to motivate those groups to support the brand. a) global branding b) retro-branding c) internal branding d) external branding e) dual branding Answer: c Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 6) Mark Thomas has observed that Shell delivers on its promises to supply the best gasoline possible to the driving public. Shell promotions, employees, and distributors send a common and consistent message about delivering on Shell promises to Mr. Thomas. Mr. Thomas is most likely experiencing ________. a) brand image b) brand enhancement c) brand belief d) brand attitude e) brand bonding Answer: e Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 7) Brand equity can be built by ________—linking the brand to other information in memory that conveys meaning to customers. a) internal marketing b) brand bonding c) secondary associations d) customer alignment e) brand auditing Answer: c Difficulty: Medium 8) Schultz, Tannenbaum, and Lauterborn define a __________ as any information-bearing experience that a customer or prospect has with the brand, the product category, or the market that relates to the marketer’s product or service. a) contact b) attitude
41. c) behavior d) feeling e) judgment Answer: a 9) Many marketers maintain that the modern economy celebrates the power of the individual consumer. To adapt to the increased consumer desire for _____________, marketers have embraced concepts such as experiential marketing and relationship marketing. a) community b) personalization c) collective siprit d) grouping e) harmonization Answer: b 10) ________________marketing promotes a product by not only communicating a product’s features and benefits but also connecting it with unique and interesting consumer experiences. One marketing commentator describes it this way: “The idea is not to sell something, but to demonstrate how a brand can enrich a customer’s life.” a) Relationship b) Holistic c) Experiential d) New e) Traditional Answer: c 11) ___________marketing appeals to consumers’ senses (sight, sound, touch, taste, and smell). a) Feel b) Think c) Act d) Sense e) Relate Answer: d 12) ___________marketing appeals to customers’ inner feelings and emotions, ranging from mildly positive moods linked to a brand (e.g., for a noninvolving, nondurable grocery brand
42. or service or industrial product) to strong emotions of joy and pride (e.g., for a consumer durable, technology, or social marketing campaign). a) Think b) Act c) Sense d) Relate e) Feel Answer: e 13) ___________marketing appeals to the intellect in order to deliver cognitive, problem- solving experiences that engage customers creatively. a) Think b) Act c) Sense d) Relate e) Feel Answer: a 14) __________marketing targets physical behaviors, lifestyles, and interactions. a) Think b) Act c) Sense d) Relate e) Feel Answer: b 15) _____________marketing creates experiences by taking into account individuals’ desires to be part of a social context (e.g., to their self-esteem, being part of a subculture, or a brand community). a) Act b) Sense c) Relate d) Feel e) Think Answer: c
43. 16) Marketing strategies must transcend the actual product or service to create stronger bonds with consumers and maximize brand resonance. This broader set of activities is sometimes called _____________marketing and is based on the premise that current customers are the key to long-term brand success, a) Holistic b) Experiential c) New d) Relationship e) Personalization Answer: d 17) The concept behind ______________, namely making products to fit the customer’s exact specifications, is an old one, but the advent of digital-age technology enables companies to offer customized products on a previously unheard-of scale. Going online, customers can communicate their preferences directly to the manufacturer, which, by using advanced production methods, can assemble the product for a price comparable to that of a noncustomized item. a) One-to-one marketing b) Permission marketing c) Experiential marketing d) Relationship marketing e) Mass customization Answer: e 18) Don Peppers and Martha Rogers popularized the concept of ________________, an influential perspective on relationship marketing.The basic rationale is that consumers help add value by providing information to marketers; marketers add value, in turn, by taking that information and generating rewarding experiences for consumers. a) One-to-one marketing b) Permission marketing c) Experiential marketing d) Relationship marketing e) Mass customization Answer: a
44. 19) _________________, the practice of marketing to consumers only after gaining their express permission, was another influential perspective on how companies can break through the clutter and build customer loyalty. a) One-to-one marketing b) Permission marketing c) Experiential marketing d) Relationship marketing e) Mass customization Answer: b 20) The _____________ itself is the primary influence on what consumers experience with a brand, what they hear about a brand from others, and what the firm can tell customers about the brand. a) price b) channel c) product d) promotion e) public relations Answer: c 21) ______________ is customers’ perception of the overall quality or superiority of a product or service compared to alternatives and with respect to its intended purpose. a) Perceived design b) Experience c) Perceived product d) Perceived quality e) Perceived price Answer: d 22) To achieve the desired brand image, product strategies should focus on both purchase and consumption. Much marketing activity is devoted to finding ways to encourage trial and repeat purchases by consumers. But little marketing attention is devoted to finding new ways for consumers to truly appreciate the advantages and capabilities of products. Perhaps in response to this oversight, one notable trend in marketing is the growing role of ______________, that is, those marketing activities that occur after customer purchase.
45. a) premarketing b) promarketing c) digital marketing d) virtual marketing e) aftermarketing Answer: e 23) ______________ programs have become one popular means by which marketers can create stronger ties to customers. Their purpose is “identifying, maintaining, and increasing the yield from a firm’s ‘best’ customers through long-term, interactive, value-added relationships.” a) Loyalty b) Trust c) Sales promotion d) Public relations e) Affection Answer: a 24) Some tips for building effective loyalty programs follow: (1) Know your __________, (2) Change is good, (3) Listen to your best customers, (4) Engage people. a) competitors b) audience c) suppliers d) resellers e) products Answer: b 25) Besides these descriptive “mean and variance” price perceptions, consumers may have price perceptions that have more inherent product meaning. In particular, in many categories, they may infer the quality of a product on the basis of its price and use perceived quality and price to arrive at an assessment of perceived _______________. a) quality b) superiority c) value d) premium e) affordability
46. Answer: c 26) Consumer associations of perceived value are often an important factor in purchase decisions. Thus many marketers have adopted _____________pricing strategies— attempting to sell the right product at the right price—to better meet consumer wishes. a) quality-based b) customer-based c) cost-based d) value-based e) fairness-based Answer: d 27) The objective of _____________ is to uncover the right blend of product quality, product costs, and product prices that fully satisfies the needs and wants of consumers and the profit targets of the firm. Marketers have learned the hard way that consumers will not pay price premiums that exceed their perceptions of the value of a brand. a) quality pricing b) customer pricing c) cost pricing d) competitors’ pricing e) value pricing Answer: e 28) As you might expect, there are a number of opinions regarding the keys for success in adopting a value-based pricing approach. In general, however, an effective value-pricing strategy should strike the proper balance among three key components: (1) Product design and delivery, (2) Product costs, and (3) ____________. a) Product prices b) Product attributes c) Product profits d) Product meanings e) Product quality Answer: a 29) ______________has received increased attention as a means of determining price discounts and promotions over time. It avoids the sawtooth, whiplash pattern of alternating
47. price increases and decreases or discounts in favor of a more consistent set of “everyday” base prices on products. a) Everyday high pricing (EDHP) b) Everyday low pricing (EDLP) c) Everyday medium pricing (EDMP) d) Everyday good pricing (EDGP) e) Everyday fair pricing (EDFP) Answer: b 30) From the viewpoint of consumer shopping and purchase behaviors, we can see channels as blending three key factors: information, entertainment, and ______________. It is rare that a manufacturer will use only a single type of channel. More likely, the firm will choose a hybrid channel design with multiple channel types. a) shopping activities b) location c) experiences d) promotion e) product display Answer: c 31) Besides the indirect avenue of image transfer, retailers can directly affect the equity of the brands they sell. Their methods of stocking, displaying, and selling products can enhance or detract from brand equity, suggesting that manufacturers must take an active role in helping retailers add value to their brands. A topic of great interest in recent years in that regard is_________________. a) Aftermarketing b) Experiential marketing c) Merchandising marketing d) shopper marketing e) Store marketing Answer: d 32) By devoting marketing efforts to the end consumer, a manufacturer is said to employ a____________, since consumers use their buying power and influence on retailers to “pull” the product through the channel. a) Push strategy
48. b) Push-pull strategy c) Pull-push strategy d) Multiple strategies e) pull strategy Answer: e 33) Marketers can devote their selling efforts to the channel members themselves, providing direct incentives for them to stock and sell products to the end consumer. This approach is called a_____________, because the manufacturer is attempting to reach the consumer by “pushing” the product through each step of the distribution chain. a) Push strategy b) Push-pull strategy c) Pull-push strategy d) Multiple strategies e) pull strategy Answer: a 34) To gain control over the selling process and build stronger relationships with customers, some manufacturers are introducing their own retail outlets, as well as selling their product directly to customers through various means. These channels can take many forms, the most complex of which, from a manufacturer’s perspective, is company-owned stores. One recent trend is the launching of _____________stores—temporary stores that blend retail and event marketing. a) street b) pop-up c) virtual d) Multiple e) shared Answer: b 35) Although different terms and definitions are possible, ___________can be defined as products marketed by retailers and other members of the distribution chain. Private labels can be called store brands when they actually adopt the name of the store itself in some way (such as Safeway Select). a) Generic labels b) Product labels c) private labels
49. d) Legal labels e) None of the above Answer: c 36) In terms of building brand equity, the key point-of-difference for private labels in consumers’ eyes has always been “________________,” a desirable and transferable association across many product categories. As a result, private labels can be extremely broad, and their name can be applied across many diverse products. a) Cheap value b) Premium value c) High value d) Good value e) None of the above Answer: d 37) To compete with private labels, a number of different other tactics also have been adopted by marketers of major national or manufacturer brands. First, marketers of major brands have attempted to decrease costs and reduce price to negate the primary ______________of private labels and achieve a critical point-of-parity. a) Point-of-advantage b) Point-of-unique c) Point-of-commodity d) Point-of-view e) point-of-difference Answer: e TRUE/FALSE 38) Because consumers have not fundamentally changed in recent years, neither have the strategies and tactics behind marketing programs. Answer: False Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Analytic Skills 39) Personalizing marketing is based on the fact that all customers are identical in several ways. Answer: False Difficulty: Medium
50. 40) Gillette sent 1,000 young males a new, innovative razor product. In return, the company asked the young males to supply their e-mail addresses so future contacts could be initiated. This would be an example of what is called permission marketing. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 41) Internal branding is the perceptions and beliefs held by consumers, as reflected in the associations held in consumer memory. Answer: False Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills 42) Marketers must now “walk the walk” to deliver the brand promise. Often internal branding is necessary to make sure that all employees assist in meeting the brand promise. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 43) The brand promise will not be delivered unless everyone in the company lives the brand. Answer: True Difficulty: Easy 44) To improve employee morale, Miller Brewing has tapped into its brewing heritage to generate some pride and passion. This is an example of internal branding. Answer: True Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking ESSAY Not available APPLICATION QUESTIONS 45) Marketers of Mountain Dew created the multicity Dew Action Sports Tour where athletes compete in skateboarding, MBX, and freestyle motocross events to establish a meaningful ________ with its 12–24-year-old target market. a) brand element b) brand contact c) internal brand d) brand salience e) brand asset Answer: b Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills 46) According to Seth Godin, marketers can no longer use ________. Instead, marketers should turn to permission marketing as a way to ensure long-term customer relationships and loyalty.
51. a) task-oriented marketing b) interruption marketing c) hard core selling d) advocacy marketing e) one-to-one marketing Answer: b Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills 47) If the Olive Garden sends employees to special classes to teach them the value of the brand and how pasta is much more than just pasta, Olive Garden is using ________ to accomplish this task. a) interruption marketing b) loyalty marketing c) cohort marketing d) macrobranding e) internal branding Answer: e Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 48) IBM’s e-business campaign not only helped to change public perceptions of the company in the marketplace, it also sent a signal to employees that IBM was determined to be a leader in the use of Internet technology. This is an example of ________. a) leveraging secondary associations b) linking internal and external marketing c) integration marketing d) permission marketing e) brand tracking Answer: b Difficulty: Medium SHORT ANSWER 49) What is permission marketing and why does it work? Suggested Answer: Permission marketing, the practice of marketing to consumers only after gaining their express permission, is based on the premise that marketers can no longer use “interruption marketing” via mass-media campaigns. It is purported to work because it is “anticipated, personal, and relevant.” Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Reflective Thinking 50) Identify the three important principles for internal branding presented in the text.
52. Suggested Answer: Three important principles for internal branding are: (1) choose the right moment; (2) link internal and external marketing; and (3) bring the brand alive for employees. Difficulty: Medium AACSB: Analytic Skills
53. CHAPTER 6: INTEGRATED MARKETING COMMUNICATIONS TO BUID BRAND EQUITY GENERAL CONCEPTS 1) _______________communications are the means by which firms attempt to inform, persuade, and remind consumers—directly or indirectly—about the brands they sell. a) Marketing b) Public c) corporate d) Digital e) online Answer: a 2) A number of different models have been put forth over the years to explain communications and the steps in the persuasion process. For example, for a person to be persuaded by any form of communication (a TV advertisement, newspaper editorial, or blog posting), the following six steps must occur: (1) _________, (2) Attention, (3) Comprehension,(4) Yielding, (5) Intentions, (6) Behavior. a) understanding b) Exposure c) like d) favourability e) appreciation Answer: b 3) Although it is a powerful means of creating strong, favorable, and unique brand associations and eliciting positive judgments and feelings, _______________is controversial because its specific effects are often difficult to quantify and predict. a) sales promotion b) personal selling c) advertising d) direct marketing e) SEO Answer: c 4) In an advertising campaign, ______________creative strategies elaborate on a specific product-related attribute or benefit and include: Problem–solution, Demonstration, Product comparison, or Testimonial (celebrity or unknown consumer).
54. a) persuasive b) Physical c) imagery d) informational e) breakthrough Answer: d 5) In an advertising campaign, ________________ creative strategies portray a specific non- product-related benefit or image and include: Typical or aspirational usage situation, Typical or aspirational user of product, Brand personality and values. a) persuasive b) Physical c) imagery d) informational e) transformational Answer: e 6) These devices include cute babies, frisky puppies, popular music, well-liked celebrities, amusing situations, provocative sex appeals, and fear-inducing threats are called ____________ or “borrowed interest” ones. a) motivational b) exciting c) fun d) informational e) transformational Answer: a 7) Advertising strategy research is often invaluable in clarifying communication objectives, target markets, and positioning alternatives. To evaluate the effectiveness of message and creative strategies, copy testing is often conducted, in which a sample of consumers is exposed to candidate ads and their reactions are gauged in some manner. a) copy audit b) copy testing c) test market d) test advertising e) none of the above Answer: b
55. 8) The two main print media—magazines and newspapers—have many of the same advantages and disadvantages. Magazines are particularly effective at building____________and usage imagery. They can also be highly engaging: one study showed that consumers are more likely to view magazine ads as less intrusive, more truthful, and more relevant than ads in other media and are less likely to multitask while reading. a) Product quality b) Product reliability c) user d) supplier e) manufacturer Answer: c 9) In contrast to advertising in traditional broadcast and print media, which typically communicates to consumers in a nonspecific and nondirective manner, ___________ uses mail, telephone, Internet, and other contact tools to communicate with or solicit a response from specific customers and prospects. a) Personal selling b) Public Relations c) Publicity d) direct response e) none of the above Answer: d 10) Formally, ______________ has been defined as “managing a computerized relational database on customers, inquiries, prospects and suspects, to identify our most responsive customers for the purpose of developing a high quality, long-standing relationship of repeat business by developing predictive models which enable us to send desired messages at the right time in the right form to the right people” a) Experiential marketing b) Mass marketing c) Modern marketing d) Traditional marketing e) database marketing Answer: e 11) ____________ are designed to do the following: • Change the behavior of the trade so that they carry the brand and actively support it • Change the behavior of consumers so that they buy a brand for the first time, buy more of the brand, or buy the brand earlier or more often.
56. a) sales promotions b) Trade promotion c) Consumer promotion d) Advertising e) Public relations Answer: a 12) Although consumer promotions come in all forms, we distinguish between customer franchise building promotions like samples, demonstrations, and educational material, and noncustomer franchise building promotions such as price-off packs, premiums, sweepstakes, and refund offers. _________________ building promotions can enhance the attitudes and loyalty of consumers toward a brand—in other words, affect brand equity. a) Noncustomer franchise b) Customer franchise c) Customer value d) Noncustomer value e) None of the above Answer: b 13) _____________________ are often financial incentives or discounts given to retailers, distributors, and other channel members to stock, display, and in other ways facilitate the sale of a product through slotting allowances, point-of-purchase displays, contests and dealer incentives, training programs, trade shows, and cooperative advertising. a) Supplier promotions b) Consumer promotions c) Trade promotions d) Employee promotions e) Stockholder promotions Answer: c 14) The main advantages to marketing on the Web are the low cost and the level of detail and degree of customization it offers. _________________communications can accomplish almost any marketing communication objective and are especially valuable in terms of solid relationship building. a) Online and offline marketing b) Word-of-mouth c) Word-of-web d) Online marketing e) Offline marketing
57. Answer: d 15) Brand-building is increasingly a collaborative effort between consumers and brand marketers. As part of this process, there will be many _______________ Web sites and pages that may include ratings, reviews, and feedback on brands. a) Company-generated b) Supplier-generated c) Reseller-generated d) Employee-generated e) consumer-generated Answer: e 16) A number of potential advantages exist for __________advertising: It is accountable, because software can track which ads went to which sales; it is nondisruptive, so it doesn’t interrupt consumers; and it can target consumers so that only the most promising prospects are contacted, who can then seek as much or as little information as they desire. a) Internet b) Print c) Broadcast d) Place e) coorporative Answer: a 17) As a manifestation of permission marketing, __________ ads in general—often including advanced features such as personalized audio messages, color photos, and streaming video—have increased in popularity. Tracking these response rates, marketers can fine-tune their messages. The key, as with direct marketing, is to create a good customer list. a) Internet b) e-mail c) Broadcast d) Place e) coorporative Answer: b 18) ______________ offers many benefits to marketers. It allows brands to establish a public voice and presence on the Web. It complements and reinforces other communication activities. By permitting personal, independent expression, message boards, chat rooms, and blogs can create a sense of community and foster active engagement. a) Internet
58. b) e-mail c) Social media d) Broadcast e) Billboards Answer: c 19) Formally, __________ can be defined as public sponsorship of events or activities related to sports, art, entertainment, or social causes. The vast majority of event expenditure occurs in the world of sports. Other categories are entertainment tours and attractions, causes, arts; festivals, fairs and annual events, and associations and membership organizations. a) online marketing b) direct marketing c) digital marketing d) event marketing e) Public marketing Answer: d 20) Developing successful event sponsorship means choosing the appropriate events, designing the optimal sponsorship program, and ___________ the effects of sponsorship on brand equity. a) developing b) planning c) exaggerating d) event marketing e) measuring Answer: e 21) Because consumers already use smartphones for information and entertainment as well as communication—and are beginning to use them as shopping devices and payment methods— investment in __________ marketing from a whole range of different sectors looking to tap into a new revenue stream is expected to grow rapidly. a) mobile b) virtual c) cyberspace d) second life e) digital Answer: a
59. 22) Complementing these four broad sets of marketing communication activities are efforts to engage consumers and the public via word-of-mouth and public relations and publicity. Although they can perform many different functions, they are especially well-suited at amplifying the effects created by other marketing activities. Therefore, they are called brand____________. a) ambassadors b) amplifiers c) champions d) supports e) enhancement Answer: b 23) _________________ relate to a variety of programs and are designed to promote or protect a company’s image or its individual products. These activities may also include annual reports, fund-raising and membership drives, lobbying, special event management, and public affairs. a) Event marketing b) Sponsorship marketing c) Public relations d) publicity e) cause marketing Answer: c 24) ______________ relates to a variety of programs and are designed to promote or protect a company’s image or its individual products. It is nonpersonal communications such as press releases, media interviews, press conferences, feature articles, newsletters, photographs,films, and tapes. a) Event marketing b) Sponsorship marketing c) Public relations d) publicity e) cause marketing Answer: d 25) __________________ is a critical aspect of brand building as consumers share their likes, dislikes, and experiences with brands with each other. Its power is the credibility and relevance it often brings. Study after study has shown that the most trusted source of product information is friends and families. a) Event marketing b) Sponsorship marketing
60. c) Public relations d) publicity e) Word-of-mouth Answer: e 26) If marketers do their job right and create marketing programs that offer consumers superior delivery of desired benefits, people will write and talk about the brand, amplifying any marketing effects. In effect, a buzz has been created among consumers. Companies are attempting to create this consumer word-of-mouth through various techniques often called ___________. a) buzz marketing b) Event marketing c) Sponsorship marketing d) PR marketing e) Publicity marketing Answer: a 27) In assessing the collective impact of an IMC program, the marketer’s overriding goal is to create the most effective and efficient communication program possible. Here are six relevant criteria: (1) Coverage, (2) Contribution, (3) Commonality, (4) Complementarity, (5) Conformability, (6) ______. a) Customer b) Cost c) Cooperation d) Co-creation e) corporation Answer: b 28) ____________ is the proportion of the audience reached by each communication option, as well as how much overlap exists among communication options. In other words, to what extent do different communication options reach the designated target market, and the same or different consumers making up that market? a) Complementarity b) Conformability c) Coverage d) Contribution e) Commonality Answer: c
61. 29) _____________ is the inherent ability of a marketing communication to create the response and communication effects from consumers in the absence of exposure to any other communication option. In other words, contribution describes the main effects of a marketing communication option in terms of how it affects consumers’ processing of a communication and the resulting outcomes. a) Complementarity b) Conformability c) Coverage d) Contribution e) Commonality Answer: d 30) ________________ is the extent to which common information conveyed by different communication options shares meaning across communication options. Most definitions of IMC emphasize only this criterion. a) Complementarity b) Conformability c) Coverage d) Contribution e) Commonality Answer: e 31) Communication options are often more effective when used in tandem. _____________describes the extent to which different associations and linkages are emphasized across communication options. The ideal marketing communication program would ensure that the communication options chosen are mutually compensatory and reinforcing to create desired consumer knowledge structures. a) Complementarity b) Conformability c) Coverage d) Contribution e) Commonality Answer: a 32) ________________ refers to the extent that a marketing communication option is robust and effective for different groups of consumers. a) Complementarity b) Conformability
62. c) Coverage d) Contribution e) Commonality Answer: b TRUE/FALSE Not available ESSAY Not available APPLICATION QUESTIONS Not available SHORT ANSWER Not available
63. CHAPTER 7: LEVRAGING SECONDARY BRAND ASSOICATIONS TO BUILD BRAND ASSOCIATIONS. GENERAL CONCEPTS 1) Which of the following is NOT a main secondary source of brand knowledge? a) Other brands b) People c) Things d) Local, state, and federal governments e) Places Answer: d Difficulty: Easy AACSB: Analytic Skills 2) Eight different ways to leverage secondary associations to build brand equity are linking the brand to (1) the company making the product; (2) the country or some other geographic location in which the product originates; (3) retailers or other channel members that sell the product; (4) other brands, including ingredient brands; (5) licensed characters; (6) famous spokespeople or endorsers; (7) events; and (8) __________________. a) third-party sources b) corporate heritage c) corporate history d) the immortal product e) legendary story Answer: a 3) Leveraging ______________ brand associations assume that brands themselves may be linked to other entities that have their own knowledge structures in the minds of consumers. Because of these linkages, consumers may assume or infer that some of the associations or responses that characterize the other entities may also be true for the brand. In effect, the brand “borrows” some brand knowledge and, depending on the nature of those associations and responses, perhaps some brand equity from other entities. a) secondary b) primary c) complementary d) intermediary e) contemporary Answer: a
64. 4) Linking the brand to some other entity—some source factor or related person, place, or thing—may create a new set of associations from the brand to the entity, as well as affecting existing brand ________________. a) linkages b) associations c) imagery d) feelings e) judgment Answer: b 5) Three important factors in predicting the extent of leverage from linking the brand to another entity: (1) Awareness and knowledge of the entity, (2) Meaningfulness of the knowledge of the entity, (3) _____________ of the knowledge of the entity. a) Memorability b) Likability c) Transferability d) Adaptability e) None of the above Answer: c 6) Marketers can choose entities for which consumers have some or even a great deal of similar associations. A ______________ leveraging strategy makes sense when consumers have associations to another entity that are congruent with desired brand associations. a) Cooperation b) synergy c) Transferability d) commonality e) Complementarity Answer: d 7) On the other hand, there may be times when entities are chosen that represent a departure for the brand because there are few if any common or similar associations. Such complementarity branding strategies can be strategically critical in terms of delivering the desired position. a) Cooperation b) synergy c) Transferability d) commonality
65. e) Complementarity Answer: e 8) Three main branding options exist for a new product: (1) Create a new brand, (2) Adopt or modify an existing brand, (3) Combine an existing and a new brand. Existing brands may be related to the ___________ brand, say Samsung, or a specific product brand like Samsung Galaxy S 4G mobile phone. If the brand is linked to an existing brand, as with options (2) and (3), then knowledge about the existing brand may also become linked to the brand. a) corporate b) private c) commodity d) industrial e) electronic Answer: a 9) Choosing brands with strong national ties may reflect a deliberate decision to maximize product utility and communicate self-image, based on what consumers believe about products from those countries. A number of brands are able to create a strong point-of- difference, in part because of consumers’ identification of and beliefs about the ________________. a) Country of selling b) country of origin c) country of material d) country of industry e) none of the above Answer: b 10) Because ____________ associations can be transferred to a brand. A consumer may infer certain characteristics about a brand on the basis of where it is sold. “If it’s sold by Nordstrom, it must be good quality.” Consumers may perceive the same brand differently depending on whether it is sold in a store seen as prestigious and exclusive, or in a store designed for bargain shoppers and having more mass appeal. a) shopper image b) manufacturer image c) store image d) category image e) quality image Answer: c
66. 11) _____________—also called brand bundling or brand alliances—occurs when two or more existing brands are combined into a joint product or are marketed together in some fashion.16 A special case of this strategy is ingredient branding, which we’ll discuss in the next section. a) Multiple branding b) Collective branding c) Community branding d) Co-branding e) Commodity branding Answer: d 12) A special case of co-branding is _____________, which creates brand equity for materials, components, or parts that are necessarily contained within other branded products with the purpose to create enough awareness and preference for their product that consumers will not buy a host product that does not contain the ingredient. a) Multiple branding b) Collective branding c) Personal branding d) Co-branding e) ingredient branding Answer: e 13) The main advantage of co-branding is that a product may be uniquely and convincingly positioned by virtue of the multiple brands in the campaign. Co-branding can create more compelling points-of-difference or _____________ for the brand—or both—than otherwise might have been feasible. a) points-of-parity b) points-of-originality c) points-of-merit d) points-of-advantage e) points-of-inequality Answer: a 14) The potential disadvantages of co-branding are the risks and lack of control that arise from becoming aligned with another brand in the minds of consumers. If the brands are very distinct, consumers may be less sure about what each brands represents. If the other brand has entered into a number of co-branding arrangements, there also may be a risk of ____________ that would dilute the transfer of any association. It may also result in distraction and a lack of focus on existing brands.
67. a) devaluation b) overexposure c) overextension d) degradation e) none of the above Answer: b 15) _____________ creates contractual arrangements whereby firms can use the names, logos, characters, and so forth of other brands to market their own brands for some fixed fee. Essentially, a firmis “renting” another brand to contribute to the brand equity of its own product. Because of being a shortcut means of building brand equity, it has gained in popularity in recent years. a) Cooperating b) Selling c) Licensing d) Co-branding e) None of the above Answer: c 16) ______________ licensing is the licensing of company names, logos, or brands for use on various, often unrelated products. For example, in the depths of a financial crisis a number of years ago, Harley-Davidson chose to license its name—synonymous with motorcycles and a certain lifestyle—to a polo shirt, a gold ring, and even a wine cooler. a) Business trademark b) Industry trademark c) Supplier trademark d) Corporate trademark e) Reseller trademark Answer: d 17) The rationale behind the strategies of ______________endorsement is that a famous person can draw attention to a brand and shape the perceptions of the brand, by virtue of the inferences that consumers make based on the knowledge they have about the famous person. The hope is that their fans will also become fans of their products or services. a) Business b) Industry c) Supplier d) Corporation e) celebrity
68. Answer: e 18) The celebrity chosen for branding marketing programs and activities must be well enough known to improve awareness, image, and responses for the brand. In particular, a celebrity endorser should have a high level of visibility and a rich set of potentially useful associations, judgments, and feelings. Ideally, he or she would be credible in terms of expertise, trustworthiness, and likability or attractiveness, as well as having specific associations that carry potential product___________. a) relevance b) performance c) attributes d) benefits e) knowledge Answer: a 19) Sponsored sporting, cultural and other __________ can contribute to brand equity by becoming associated to the brand and improving brand awareness, adding new associations, or improving the strength, favorability, and uniqueness of existing associations. a) celebrities b) events c) co-branding d) tournament e) competition Answer: b 20) Marketers can create secondary associations in a number of different ways by linking the brand to various ___________ sources. For example, the Good Housekeeping seal has been seen as a mark of quality for decades, offering product replacement or refunds for defective products for up to two years from purchase. a) one-party b) two-party c) third-party d) fourth party e) fifth-party Answer: c 21) In general, the extent to which any of these entities can be leveraged as a source of equity depends on consumer ____________ of the entity and how easily the appropriate associations or responses to the entity transfer to the brand. Overall credibility or
69. attitudinal dimensions may be more likely to transfer than specific attribute and benefit associations, although the latter can be transferred, too. a) awareness b) response c) judgment d) knowledge e) feeling Answer: d TRUE/FALSE Not available ESSAY Not available APPLICATION QUESTIONS 21) If Burton, a maker of snowboard and ski equipment and clothing, decided to introduce a new surfboard and promote it by publicizing favorable ratings from third-party sources such as Surfer or Surfing magazine, the company would be ________ to promote its new product. a) leveraging secondary associations b) linking internal and external marketing c) conducting integration marketing d) engaging in permission marketing e) emphasizing brand tracking Answer: a Difficulty: Hard AACSB: Analytic Skills SHORT ANSWER Not available
70. CHAPTER 8: DEVELOPING A BRAND EQUITY MEASUREMENT AND MANAGEMENT SYSTEM GENERAL CONCEPTS 105) There are two basic approaches to measuring brand equity present themselves. An________ approach can assess potential sources of customer-based brand equity by identifying and tracking consumers’ brand knowledge—all the thoughts, feelings, images, perceptions, and beliefs linked to the brand. A _________approach, on the other hand, can assess the actual impact of brand knowledge on consumer response to different aspects of the marketing program. a) indirect; direct b) direct; indirect c) qualitative; quantitative d) quantitative; qualitative e) none of the above Answer: a 106) A brand equity ____________ system is a set of research procedures designed to provide marketers with timely, accurate, and actionable information about brands so they can make the best possible tactical decisions in the short run and strategic decisions in the long run. a) information b) measurement c) management d) control e) tracking Answer: b 107) A ____________ is a “comprehensive, systematic, independent, and periodic examination of a company’s—or business unit’s—marketing environment, objectives, strategies, and activities with a view of determining problem areas and opportunities and recommending a plan of action to improve the company’s marketing performance. a) tracking audit b) brand audit c) marketing audit d) business audit e) corporate audit Answer: c
71. 108) A ______________ is a comprehensive examination of a brand to discover its sources of brand equity, that is, to learn how consumers think, feel, and act toward brands and products so the company can make informed strategic positioning decisions. a) tracking audit b) marketing audit c) business audit d) brand audit e) corporate audit Answer: d 109) The purpose of the ______________ is to provide a current, comprehensive profile of how all the products and services sold by a company are marketed and branded. a) brand exploratory b) marketing audit c) business audit d) brand audit e) brand inventory Answer: e 110) The _______________ is research directed to understanding what consumers think and feel about the brand and act toward it in order to better understand sources of brand equity as well as any possible barriers. a) brand exploratory b) marketing audit c) business audit d) brand audit e) brand inventory Answer: a 111) A _____________ accurately portrays in detail all salient brand associations and responses for a particular target market. One of the simplest means to get consumers to create it is to ask them for their top-of-mind brand associations (“When you think of this brand, what comes to mind?”). a) user map b) mental map c) feeling map d) mind map e) neuro map Answer: b

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