What would the nurse practitioner assess in a patients eyes by using an ophthalmoscope quizlet?

a 45-year-old suspected of experiencing a subarachnoid hemorrhage

Explanation:
Papilledema describes swelling of the optic disc and anterior bulging of the physiologic cup. Increased intracranial pressure is transmitted to the optic nerve, causing edema of the optic nerve. Papilledema often signals serious disorders of the brain, such as meningitis, subarachnoid hemorrhage, trauma, and mass lesions. An enlarged physiological cup suggests chronic open-angle glaucoma. If cranial nerve IV is paralyzed, the left eye will deviate from its normal position in that direction of gaze, and the eyes will no longer appear conjugate, or parallel. Diplopia in adults may arise from a lesion in the brainstem or cerebellum, or from weakness or paralysis of one or more extraocular muscles, as in horizontal diplopia from palsy of cranial nerve (CN) III or VI, or vertical diplopia from palsy of CN III or IV.

Kale
Eggs
Oranges

Lutein and zeaxanthin found in green leafy vegetables, eggs, and other foods reduce the risk of chronic eye diseases, including age-related macular degeneration and cataracts. Foods rich in these nutrients include kale, spinach, collards, turnip greens, corn, green peas, broccoli, romaine lettuce, green beans, eggs, and oranges. Consumption of red wine, turkey, and skim milk are not associated with a reduced risk for cataracts.

D) Patient denies measles, mumps, rubella, chickenpox, pertussis, rheumatic fever, and polio.

Childhood illnesses include measles, rubella, mumps, whooping cough, rheumatic fever, scarlet fever, and polio. They are included in the past history.

C) mental illness.

Specifically ask for any family history of heart disease, high blood pressure, stroke, diabetes, obesity, blood disorders, ovarian cancer, colon cancer, sickle cell anemia, arthritis, allergies, alcohol or drug addiction, mental illness, suicide, seizure disorder, kidney disease, and tuberculosis. The other answers are acquired.

Suzanne, a 25 year old, comes to your clinic to establish care. You are the student preparing to go into the examination room to interview her. Which of the following is the most logical sequence for the patient-provider interview?
A) Establish the agenda, negotiate a plan, establish rapport, and invite the patient's story.
B) Invite the patient's story, negotiate a plan, establish the agenda, and establish rapport.
C) Greet the patient, establish rapport, invite the patient's story, establish the agenda, expand and clarify the patient's story, and negotiate a plan.
D) Negotiate a plan, establish an agenda, invite the patient's story, and establish rapport.

The nurse practitioner is reviewing the immunization history of a new 24 year old female patient. Which is the best to ask the patient to obtain the needed information for your records?
A) Do you need vaccines today?
B) When was your last flu shot, tetanus shot?
C) Have you received these vaccines in your lifetime? When did you receive them? Tetanus, pertussis, diphtheria, polio, measles, mumps, rubella, influenza, varicella, hepatitis B, haemophilus influenzae type B, pneumococcal, HPV?
D) Are your immunizations up to date?

C) Have you received these vaccines in your lifetime? When did you receive them? Tetanus, pertussis, diphtheria, polio, measles, mumps, rubella, influenza, varicella, hepatitis B, haemophilus influenzae type B, pneumococcal, HPV?

Find out whether the patient has received required and recommended vaccines. (Bates, 10)

D) diffusely hyper-resonant sounds with percussion, decreased or absent breath sounds per auscultation, decreased tactile fremitus, and no crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi.

COPD is characterized by diffusely hyper-resonant sounds with percussion, decreased or absent breath sounds per auscultation, decreased tactile fremitus, and no crackles, wheezes, or rhonchi. (Bates, p340)

In assessing a patient's major risk factors for heart disease, which would the nurse want to include when taking a history?
A) Personality type, high cholesterol, diabetes, smoking
B) Family history, hypertension, stress, age
C) Alcohol consumption, obesity, diabetes, stress, high cholesterol
D) Smoking, hypertension, obesity, diabetes, and high cholesterol, activity level, family history

D) Smoking, hypertension, obesity, diabetes, and high cholesterol, activity level, family history

For major risk factors for coronary artery disease, collect data regarding elevated serum cholesterol, elevated blood pressure, blood glucose levels above 130 mg/dL or known diabetes mellitus, obesity, cigarette smoking, low activity level (Bates, p358)

In which order should the abdomen be examined in?
A) auscultation, inspection, percussion, palpation
B) inspection, percussion, auscultation, palpation
C) percussion, palpation, inspection, auscultation
D) inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation

What would the nurse practitioner assess in a patient's eyes by using an ophthalmoscope quizlet?

What does the nurse assess with the help of an ophthalmoscope? The nurse assesses the red reflex by using an ophthalmoscope during an eye examination. A penlight is used to assess the blink reflex, the papillary reflex, and the corneal light reflex.

Which reflex would the nurse assess in a patient's eyes by using an ophthalmoscope?

Inspect the fundus with an ophthalmoscope. Elicit the blink reflex with the help of a penlight. While preparing the patient for an ophthalmic examination, the nurse places an index card on the patient's left eye.

What does the examiner assess While examining the head and face of a patient?

Face. Careful inspection of the face as a patient talks will reveal many factors. The examiner should look carefully for signs of trauma, previous facial surgery, eye swelling, or "bags under the eye," which might indicate fluid or allergic disorders. The quality of the skin can be quickly noted.

What eye function is the nurse preparing to assess when the patient is asked to stand 20 feet from a specific chart?

Explanation: The Snellen chart tests distant visual acuity by seeing how far the client can read the letters standing 20 feet from the chart.