Show
Recommended textbook solutions Business Math17th EditionMary Hansen 3,684 solutions Contemporary Abstract Algebra8th EditionJoseph Gallian 1,976 solutions Precalculus: Mathematics for Calculus7th EditionLothar Redlin, Stewart, Watson 8,794 solutions
Linear Algebra and Its Applications5th EditionDavid C. Lay, Judi J. McDonald, Steven R. Lay 2,029 solutions Which of the following enzymes catalyze hydrolytic cleavage reactions? a. hydrolases c. All of the above Which statement is true regarding APC/C regulation of the cell cycle? a. APC/C targeting of securin is critical for activation of separase, allowing sister chromatids to be pulled apart during anaphase. b. All of the above are true. c. When chromosomes are not attached to the mitotic spindle, Cdc20 is inhibited, and cannot activate the anaphase promoting complex to allow cells to transition from metaphase to anaphase. d. APC/C functions as a ubiquitin ligase, targeting proteins like securin and M-Cyclin for degradation. b. All of the above Which of the following characteristics distinguish cancer cells from normal cells? e. a&c only e. a&c only True or False: Cell death by apoptosis results from tissue injury and is associated with inflammation and rupture of cells. False Repression of which of the following proteins is critical for the epithelial-mesenchymal transition (EMT) ? a. MMPs C. E-cadherin Which of the following statements about cadherins is NOT true? a. Cadherins are components in Adherens junction. b. Cadherins include diverse transmembrane proteins c. Heterophilic cadherins interactions promote cell sorting during embryogenesis d. Cells destined to form similar tissues are sorted according to which cadherin proteins they express during embryonic development c. Heterophilic cadherins interactions promote cell sorting during embryogenesis Which proteins are responsible for linking the extracellular matrix to the cytoskeleton? e. a&b only a. Integrins What is the role of p53 in the intrinsic pathway of apoptosis? a. p53 multimerizes and forms protein channels on mitochondria. b. Active p53 increases caspase synthesis. c. p53 phosphorylation by ATM kinases target p53 for protein degradation d. Active p53 inactivates Bcl-2, lifting the inhibition of cytochrome c release from mitochondria into the cytosol. d. Active p53 inactivates Bcl-2, lifting the inhibition of cytochrome c release from mitochondria into the cytosol. Which of the following is not a target for phosphorylation by mitotic cyclins? a. Condensin: to induce chromosome condensation. b. Nuclear lamins: to break down nuclear envelop c. Microtubule-associated
proteins: to promote d. Mitogen receptors: to induce MAP kinase activation. d. Mitogen receptors: to induce MAP kinase activation. G1 Cells determine whether or not they divide again G2 Cell volume and Organelles are expanded
M The steps of nuculear division are followed by cytokinesis, or cell division S DNA replication to double the amount of DNA in the cells occurs All of the following are true of mitotic spindle attachment to chromatids during mitosis EXCEPT: a. Kinetochore microtubules bind to proteins on the centromeres of mitotic chromatids. b. The half-life of microtubules shortens during prometaphase and metaphase. c. High [Ran-GTP] around mitotic chromosomes stabilizes microtubules and enhances attachment onto mitotic chromatids. d. The dynamic instability of microtubules decreases, and this stable microtubule structure can attach to chromatids easier. d. The dynamic instability of microtubules decreases, and this stable microtubule structure can attach to chromatids easier. Which force(s) enable the alignment of mitotic chromatids? E) A&B only. B) Movement of chromatid bound kinesins along microtubules generates a pushing force away from the spindle pole. C) Under high tension, distance between inner and outer kinetochore increases leading to reduction of phosphorylation of microtubule tethering proteins by Aurora-B kinase, allowing stronger microtubule-kinetochore attachment. A) Microtubule treadmilling requires kinetochore microtubules to constantly reattach to kinetochore proteins on mitotic chromatids, generating a pulling force towards the spindle pole. D) All of the above. D) All of the above. The cell cycle can be arrested in mitosis when a single sister-chromatid pair is mono-oriented on the mitotic spindle. If at this point a glass microneedle is used to pull the mono-oriented chromosome toward the pole to which it is not attached, the cell proceeds to anaphase. This observation confirms that ... a. Mechanical tension drives the formation of bi-oriented chromosomes b. Bi-oriented chromosomes activate the spindle assembly checkpoint c. Lack of mechanical tension at the kinetochore in at least one chromosome prevents entry into anaphase d. Mono-oriented chromosomes are stable e. Mechanical tension at the kinetochore in at least one chromosome is required for entry into anaphase c. Lack of mechanical tension at the kinetochore in at least one chromosome prevents entry into anaphase Cytoplasmic division depends on a bundle of actin microfilaments known as the contractile ring. What causes this ring to tighten around the cytoplasm during cytokinesis? C) Inhibition of myosin kinases E) A&B only Which of the following is NOT true in regard to APC/C (Anaphase Promoting Complex)? a. It stabilizes the interaction between sister chromatids a. It stabilizes the interaction between sister chromatids Which of the following statements regarding Ccof actin monomers is true? a. Cc is equal to the concentration of actin monomers at steady state.of F-actin a. Cc is equal to the concentration of actin monomers at steady state.of F-actin True or False: G-actin bound by thymosin will be added to the plus-end of a growing actin filament. False Which monomeric GTPase would you expect to be dominantly active at the leading edge of a migrating cell? B) Cdc42 E) A&B only Which of the following statements is NOT true about GTP hydrolysis in dynamic instability? a. Catastrophe, or the rapid depolymerization of microtubules occurs following random loss of the GTP cap from the plus end. c. GTP in the α-subunit of tubulin heterodimer is hydrolyzed after addition of the tubulin heterodimer to a microtubule. Which of the following is TRUE about MTOC (Microtubule-organizing center)? a. MOTC is required because the cellular concentration of tubulin dimers is a lot higher than the Cc of microtubule. c. γ-tubulin complex plays a critical role by serving as a seed for polymerization _______ move cargo towards minus ends of microtubules, whereas________ move cargo towards plus ends of microtubules. Dyneins, kinesins How does the Arp2/3 accelerate actin polymerization? a. Arp 2/3 nucleates assembly and remains associated with the growing plus end. b. Arp 2/3 complex provides a cap on the minus end of actin filaments. Which of the following is a correct statement about skeletal muscle contraction? a. Contraction is a result of myosin filaments sliding into actin
filaments. a. Contraction is a result of myosin filaments sliding into actin filaments. True or False: Switch-like cellular behavior can happen in response to stimulus in the absence of feedback. True Which of the following feedback mechanisms produce oscillatory system behavior in cells? a. Cellular response to signal only, no feedback b. Negative feedback with long delay Which of the following can enable cells to respond to changes in concentration rather than absolute concentration of extracellular signal molecules? a. Kinases acting to promote their own phosphorylation and activation b. Down-regulation of receptor protein from the plasma membrane into lysosomes Why do high-frequency Ca2+ oscillations induce much higher levels of CaM-Kinase II activation than low-frequency Ca2+ oscillations even when the amplitude of Ca2+ increase is almost identical? a. Autophosphorylation on individual catalytic subunits acts as a memory of previous Ca2+ spikes. b. High-frequency Ca2+ oscillations generates more Ca2+-bound calmodulin in cytosol. c. High-frequency Ca2+ oscillations negates a negative feedback. d. Calmodulin once associate with CaM-kinase, does not dissociate from CaM-Kinase II even after Ca2+ spikes is gone. a. Autophosphorylation on individual catalytic subunits acts as a memory of previous Ca2+ spikes. Which of the following is true regarding steroid hormones? C) Their hydrophobic nature allows easy passage through the plasma membrane. E) A&C only Which is correct in regard to actin cytoskeleton? a. The rate of polymerization is higher at the minus end of F-actin. b. Polymerization of actin filaments has a lag phase until oligomers of actin subunits, also referred to as "seed" form. c. Polymerization of actin filaments has a lag phase until the [G-actin] and [F-actin] reach a critical imbalance inside the cell. d. GTP hydrolysis in actin monomers affect the dissociation rate of monomers from polymers. b. Polymerization of actin filaments has a lag phase until oligomers of actin subunits, also referred to as "seed" form. "When an activated
molecule of Ca2+/calmodulin binds to its target protein, What feedback mechanism does this describe? a. There is no feedback in the context. b. negative Feedback Which of the following is not an example of regulated secretion? a. After the arrival of an action potential, synaptic
vesicles fuse releasing neurotransmitter into the synapse. d. Newly synthesized plasma membrane proteins are distributed along the cell membrane following fusion of vesicles. LDL is brought into the cell while LDL receptors (LDL-R) are recycled back to the plasma membrane in a classic example of receptor-mediated endocytosis. Why does LDL bind LDL-R at the plasma membrane, but dissociate from them inside the early endosome? A) Other lipoproteins with higher affinity for LDL-R outcompete LDL inside the early endosome. E) B&C only macropinocytosis Large scale uptake of extracellular fluid pinocytosis Uptake of plasma membrane along with the extracellular fluid phagocytosis ingestion of large particles receptor-mediated endocytosis used by cells to selectively import macromolecules Why does the F508del mutation of CFTR reduce the channel's activity on the epical plasma membrane? a. Nonsense, frame-shift, or splicing mutations, prevent the biosynthesis of CFTR. c. The protein is misfolded in the ER causing reduced trafficking of functional CFTR to the plasma membrane Which of the following is not an accurate description of cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR)? a. Anion channel b. Transcription factor Paracrine local action is transduced by local mediator molecules endocrine Hormones secreted travel long distances through the blood stream to produces a systematic response Contact-Dependent membrane bound signal molecules on one cell binds to plasma membrane receptors on another cell Synaptic ... Action Potential firing Milliseconds activation of a protein by phosphorylation seconds changes in gene transcription hours Which of the followings is NOT a second messenger? a. Insulin a. insulin The all-or-none responses -- the system does not respond to the lower levels of signal but shows an abrupt full response upon reaching a threshold. Which of the following does NOT lead to such all-or-none response? a. Positive feedback. b. Hyperbolic, stable intermediates. Which of the following is NOT a step of the unfolded protein response that is activated by the accumulation of misfolded proteins in the ER? a. Chaperone mRNA is translated in the cytosol and chaperone proteins are transported to the ER. b. Misfolded proteins in ER bind to and activate IRE1, a transmembrane kinase. c. Active IRE1 unmasks an endoribonuclease activity. d. Transcription regulator promotes increased transcription of genes encoding ER chaperones. a. Chaperone mRNA is translated in the cytosol and chaperone proteins are transported to the ER. Protein transport into the ER occurs via Co- translational, Post-translational What is unique about the protein transport mechanism used by peroxisomes compared to mitochondria? a. Peroxisomal proteins are translated in the cytosol, whereas mitochondrial proteins are translated in the mitochondrial membrane. d. Proteins transported into peroxisomes are in native, folded form, whereas mitochondrial precursor proteins remain unfolded until after import into the mitochondrial matrix. Rab GTPase that guides transport vesicles to their targets Dynamin Required for constricting and closing vesicles Clathrin coat protein Adapter proteins mediate the selective recruitment of both membrane and soluble cargo molecules into the vesicle SNAREs aid vesicle targeting and mediate membrane fusion How are vesicles selectively targeted to their intended target membrane? a. All the answers are correct. b. Rab effector proteins on target membrane bind and tether the incoming vesicle on the target organelle. c. GTP-bound Rab proteins act as targeting address d. Highly selective paring by v-SNARE and t-SNARE proteins a. All the answers are correct. Tethering of a transport vesicle to a target membrane involves all of the following players EXCEPT: a. Rab effector proteins c. SNAREs Which of the following is NOT true about lysosomes? a. Hydrolytic enzymes found in lysosomes are active in environments with low [H+]. a. Hydrolytic enzymes found in lysosomes are active in environments with low [H+]. Rank the following subcellular locations from most (4) to least (1) acidic: Lysosome, Golgi, ER, Cytosol True or false: Transport vesicles arrive first in the medial Golgi network, then progress through the cis-cisternae before exiting through the trans Golgi network for transport to other subcellular locations such as lysosomes, plasma membrane, or secretory vesicles. False KDEL receptors transport ER-resident proteins from Golgi back to the ER, despite the fact that the concentration of ER-resident proteins is a lot higher in the ER than in Golgi, because KDEL receptors have a ________ affinity for ER-resident proteins in the Golgi which has a ________ pH than the ER. Higher, lower True or false: The rate of simple and channel-mediated transport reaches a maximum when the channel is saturated, whereas the rate of transporter-mediated diffusion is directly proportional to the solute concentration. False Which of the following is NOT true about the Na+/Glucose Symporter? a. Na+/Glucose symporter utilizes the steep electrochemical gradient of Glucose to transport Na+ to maintain the resting membrane potential. b. Binding of Na+ and glucose is cooperative, meaning binding of either solute increases the protein's affinity for the other. c. Na+/Glucose symporter is an example of an active transport. d. When the symporter opens inwardly, Na+ quickly dissociates into the cell due to a low [Na+] in the cytosol. a. Na+/Glucose symporter utilizes the steep electrochemical gradient of Glucose to transport Na+ to maintain the resting membrane potential. Which of the following transporters contributes to the transcellular transport of glucose?
B) Na+/ glucose symporter E) All of the Above How does channelrhodopsin provide optogenetic control of action potential generation? a. Blue light induces a conformational change in channelrhodopsin making it permeable to Cl-. b. Upon light illumination, channelrhodopsin inactivates Na+/K+ pump to negate the
membrane potential. c. Blue light opens channelrhodopsin resulting in the influx of Na+. d. Channelrhodopsin mediates the active transport of K+ across the membrane upon light illumination. c. Blue light opens channelrhodopsin resulting in the influx of Na+. Binding of an _________ neurotransmitter to its receptor on a postsynaptic neuron would cause hyperpolarization of that cell. Inhibitory Action potentials quickly propagate along an axon as __________ Na+ and K+ ion channels respond to changes in membrane potential. a. electrochemically-gated b. voltage-gated c. ligand-gated d. mechanically-gated b. voltage gated The nuclear pore complex is highly selective and excludes most macromolecules, but the complexes of cargo protein and importin/exportin are able to pass through because... a. The NPC is permeable to small proteins such as importins and exportins. b. Importin and exportin can interact with the FG-repeats proteins that are present in the nuclear pore. c. Importin is strongly pulled into the nucleus down its concentration gradient only when it is loaded with cargo proteins. d. When the concentration of cargo proteins in the nucleoplasm gets low, nuclear pore mesh weakens to allow easier entry by cargo and importin complexes. b. Importin and exportin can interact with the FG-repeats proteins that are present in the nuclear pore. Which of the following is TRUE about nuclear transport? a. GDP-bound Ran is more abundant in the nucleus. b. Ran-GAP stimulates the release of nuclear cargo in the nucleus. c. Ran-GEF interacts with importin to release the importin-bound Ran proteins. d. GTP-bound Ran has a higher affinity towards the exportins that are loaded with cargo proteins and stabilizes the exportin-cargo complex. d. GTP-bound Ran has a higher affinity towards the exportins that are loaded with cargo proteins and stabilizes the exportin-cargo complex. Which of the following is TRUE about mitochondrion? a. ATP Synthase is located in the outer mitochondrial membrane. b. The electrochemical gradient of Na+ across the mitochondrial membrane drives the generation of ATP. c. The pH in mitochondrial matrix is higher than that in cytoplasm. d. ATP synthase pumps Na+ and K+ across the mitochondrial membrane to power the electron transport chain. c. The pH in mitochondrial matrix is higher than that in cytoplasm. What would happen to the localization of Protein-N that is normally imported into the nucleus when the intrinsic GTPase activity of Ran are inhibited? a. Protein-N would remain in the cytosol, unable to be imported into the nucleus. b. Protein-N will be equally present in the cytosol and in the nucleus. c. Protein-N will be imported into the nucleus more quickly but, will be unable to be exported back out. d. Upon import into the nucleus they would not be able to regulate transcription, because GTP would remain bound to the cargo protein. a. Protein-N would remain in the cytosol, unable to be imported into the nucleus. True or False: Hydropathy plots can be used to predict both alpha-helical and beta-sheet membrane spanning segments. False Why must membrane proteins be solubilized in detergents for studying their biological functions? a. Detergents confer to the protein the negative charge they will need for western blotting. b. It is hard to wash the lipids off of membrane proteins when lysing cells. c. Hydrophobic surfaces on membrane proteins need to be kept in a hydrophobic environment. d. Detergents wash all other types of protein from the sample leaving only the hydrophobic membrane proteins remaining. c. Hydrophobic surfaces on membrane proteins need to be kept in a hydrophobic environment. Which of the following would not be transported across the lipid bilayer of a cell by simple diffusion? CO2 O2 H+ H2O H+ The concentration of Na+ is greater on the _______ of the cell, and the concentration of K+ is greater on the _______ of the cell. Outside, Inside Some K+ channels exhibit the high selectivity for K+ over Na+ although the size of Na+ ion is smaller than that of K+. Which of the following is a reason for such selectivity? a. The smaller size of Na+ allows the K+ channel to flip-flop through the lipid bilayer, resulting in selective transport of K+ ions. b. The electrochemical gradient through the selectivity pore allows the effective movement of K+, but not that of Na+. c. K+ generates extensive hydrogen bonds with the peptide bonds to induce the conformational change, hence the opening of K+ channel. d. The pore of K+ channel effectively dehydrates K+ ions by replacing water molecules with the carbonyl groups lining the passage. d. The pore of K+ channel effectively dehydrates K+ ions by replacing water molecules with the carbonyl groups lining the passage. Which of the following statements is NOT true about membrane potential? a. The generation of ATP in mitochondria and chloroplasts relies on membrane potential. b. An exact balance of charges on each side of the membrane is equal to a membrane potential value of 1. c. Membrane potential contributes to action potential generation in electrically excitable cells such as neurons. d. A membrane potential arises when there is a difference in the electrical charge on the two sides of a membrane. b. An exact balance of charges on each side of the membrane is equal to a membrane potential value of 1. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the lipid bilayer in cell membranes? a. The outer leaflet is composed of negatively charged phospholipids such as phosphatidylserine and phosphoinositides. b. Intercalation of cholesterol molecules into a membrane buffers its fluidity. c. All of the above statements are true. d. The outer leaflet contains most of the glycolipids. a. The outer leaflet is composed of negatively charged phospholipids such as phosphatidylserine and phosphoinositides. Why is SDS used in western blotting? a. To cover the polypeptide in
negative charges a. To cover the polypeptide in negative charges True or False: One advantage to using polyclonal antibodies for immunoblotting is that polyclonal antibodies recognize more antigens than monoclonal antibodies? False A genome-wide association study can be used to: d) A&B only B) Statistically analyze the frequency of gene variants d) A&B only ____________ are useful in cloning because they cleave DNA at specific sequences. a. Restriction enzymes a. Restriction enzymes There are how many micrometers in one millimeter? 1000 Human B cells contain vast antibody diversity because of this process: a. somatic DNA recombination a. somatic DNA recombination This technique relies on the emission spectra of one fluorophore overlapping with the excitation spectra of a second fluorophore and allows researchers to study protein interactions: a. fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET) a. fluorescence resonance energy transfer (FRET) Exclusion of out-of-focus light in order to enhance optical resolution can be accomplished by the use of: a. all of the above a. all of the above True or False: Immunostaining is similar to western blotting because both techniques use antibodies to detect antigens. True Which of the following is NOT true regarding optical resolution? a. Confocal microscopes have poorer optical resolution than traditional fluorescence microscopes. a. Confocal microscopes have poorer optical resolution than traditional fluorescence microscopes. What is the common feature on the side chains of serine, threonine, and tyrosine amino acids that allows them to be modified by phosphorylation? a. a carboxyl goup d. a hydroxyl group lysine ubiquitination threonine phosphorylation thyrosine phosphorylation serine phosphorylation All of the following are post-transcriptional processing events that convert eukaryotic pre-mRNA into mature mRNA EXCEPT: a. RNA splicing b. Translation Which amino acid residue disrupts the formation of alpha helix secondary structures? Proline True or False: RNA splicing removes intronic sequences and retains exons from newly transcribed pre-mRNAs. true True or False: Guanine nucleotide exchange factor (GEF) is responsible for covalently attaching GTP to GTP-binding proteins, thus activating them. False Protein synthesis, or ______________ is the process of converting the genetic information of mRNA into the amino acid sequences. a. replication c. translation Which of the following is NOT an example of covalent protein modification? a. ubiquitination c. allostery In order for the Src-type protein kinases to be activated... a. All the answers are correct. c. A phosphorylation on a tyrosine residue must be removed. Which of the following is not true regarding the use of feedback during the closing stage of group?Which of the following is NOT true regarding the use of feedback during the closing stage of group? Feedback should not be given during the closing stage, as it could be hurtful.
How much time should the leader spend in the closing stage of the group?It may take as little as 15 minutes of the last session for a task group or as much as two sessions. According to the authors, and generally, the last session of the group is enough time to close most groups. Why is it important to check for unfinished business before closing a session?
Which of the following is not true regarding holding the focus when processing a group exercise?Which of the following is not true regarding holding the focus when processing a group exercise? It is never a good idea to stop an exercise, even if the members are bored or confused about the purpose.
Which of the following are the five basic stages of a telephone conversation quizlet?Key Takeaway
A telephone conversation typically includes five stages: opening, feedforward, business, feedback, and closing.
|
Which of the following is not true regarding the use of feedback during the closing stage of Group quizlet?
zusammenhängende Posts
Urheberrechte © © 2024 defrojeostern Inc.
