Which of the following projections would best demonstrate air in the fundus of the stomach?

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Which of the following positions is required to demonstrate small amounts of air in the peritoneal cavity?

A. Lateral decubitus, affected side up B. Lateral decubitus, affected side down C. AP Trendelenburg D. AP supine

A
Small amounts of air within the peritoneal or pleural space are best demonstrated in the lateral decubitus position, affected side up.

Correct preparation for a patient scheduled for an upper gastrointestinal (GI) series is most likely to be

A. iodinated contrast administration evening before examination; water only in the morning B. NPO after midnight C. cathartics and cleansing enemas D. NPO after midnight, cleansing enemas, and empty bladder before scout film

B
upper is just NPO
lower uses cleansing enemas

Which of the following fracture classifications describes a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process?

A. Avulsion fracture B. Torus fracture C. Comminuted fracture D. Compound fracture

A
An avulsion fracture is a small bony fragment pulled from a bony process as a result of a forceful pull of the attached ligament or tendon

All of the following statements regarding the RAO position of the sternum are true, except

A. the sternum is generally projected to the left of the vertebral column. B. shallow breathing during the exposure can obliterate prominent pulmonary markings. C. it is helpful to project the sternum over the heart. D. a thin thorax requires a lesser degree of obliquity than a thicker thorax.

D
rotate skinny people more

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding lower-extremity venography?

1.The patient is often examined in the semierect position.2.Contrast medium is injected through a vein in the foot.3.Imaging begins at the hip and proceeds inferiorly.
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B
Imaging begins at the ankle and proceeds superiorly, usually including the inferior vena cava.

Evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the humerus include

1. epicondyles parallel to the IR

2. lesser tubercle in profile

3. superimposed epicondyles

A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C
AP epicondyles are parallel / greater tubercle in profile

What structure can be located midway between the anterosuperior iliac spine (ASIS) and pubic symphysis?

A. Dome of the acetabulum B. Femoral neck C. Greater trochanter D. Iliac crest

How should a chest examination to rule out air–fluid levels be obtained on a patient having traumatic injuries?

A. Perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position. B. Erect inspiration and expiration images should be obtained. C. Include a lateral chest examination performed in dorsal decubitus position. D. Perform the examination AP supine at 44 inches SID.

C
If the examination is also being performed to rule out air–fluid levels, this can be determined by performing the lateral projection in the dorsal decubitus position

The term used to describe expectoration of blood from the bronchi is

A. hemoptysis B. hematemesis C. chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) D. bronchitis

A
Hematemesis is vomiting of blood

The plane that passes vertically through the body, dividing it into anterior and posterior halves, is termed the

A. median sagittal plane (MSP) B. midcoronal plane C. sagittal plane D. transverse plane

A lateral projection of the hand in extension is often recommended to evaluate

1. a fracture

2. a foreign body

3. soft tissue

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1 and 3 only

C
extension, is recommended to evaluate foreign-body location in soft tissue

In which of the following positions can the sesamoid bones of the foot be demonstrated to be free of superimposition with the metatarsals or phalanges?

A. Dorsoplantar metatarsals/toes B. Tangential metatarsals/toes C. 30-degree medial oblique foot D. 30-degree lateral oblique foot

B
sesamoid bones are bones under the foot

Which of the following statements is (are) correct with respect to postoperative cholangiography?

1. A T-tube is in place in the common bile duct.

2. Water-soluble contrast material is injected.

3. The patency of biliary ducts is evaluated.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D
cholangiography frequently is performed to evaluate the patency of the biliary ducts

The hard palate is formed by the

1. ethmoid bone.

2. maxillary bone.

3. palatine bone.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C
The maxillae are the second largest of the facial bones. They articulate with each other to form most of the upper jaw ( hard palate ).

Esophageal varices are best demonstrated in which of the following positions?

A. Erect B. Recumbent C. Fowler D. Sims

B
Esophageal varices are best demonstrated when there is increased venous pressure and when blood is flowing against gravity.

Which of the following positions is/are most frequently used to demonstrate the sphenoid sinuses?

1. Modified Waters (mouth open)

2. Lateral

3. PA axial

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B
The PA axial projection demonstrates the frontal and ethmoidal sinus groups

Blood is returned to the left atrium, from the lungs, via the

A. aorta. B. superior vena cava. C. pulmonary veins. D. pulmonary artery.

C
oxygenated blood from the lungs is carried via the four pulmonary veins (the only veins that carry oxygenated blood) and emptied into the left atrium

An AP oblique (lateral rotation) of the elbow demonstrates which of the following?

1. Radial head free of superimposition

2. Capitulum of the humerus

3. Olecranon process within the olecranon fossa

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B
The humeral capitulum is on the lateral side

Which of the following techniques would provide a posteroanterior (PA) projection of the gastroduodenal surfaces of a barium-filled high and transverse stomach?

A. Place the patient in a 35- to 40-degree right anterior oblique (RAO) position. B. Place the patient in a lateral position. C. Angle the CR 35 to 45 degrees cephalad. D. Angle the CR 35 to 45 degrees caudad.

C
Thus, patients with a hypersthenic body habitus usually present a high transverse stomach with poorly defined curvatures. If the PA stomach is projected with a 35- to 45-degree cephalad CR, the stomach "opens up."

When modifying the PA axial projection of the skull to demonstrate superior orbital fissures, the central ray is directed

A. 20° to 25° caudad. B. 20° to 25° cephalad. C. 30° to 35° caudad. D. 30° to 35° cephalad.

A
The central ray can be directed (1) 25° to 30° caudad for the rotundum foramina, (2) 20° to 25° caudad for the superior orbital fissures, or (3) 20° to 25° cephalad for the inferior orbital fissures

The secondary center of ossification in long bones is the

A. periosteum. B. endosteum. C. epiphysis. D. diaphysis.

C
The shaft (or diaphysis ) of long bones is the primary ossification center during bone development.

The secondary ossification center, the epiphysis, is separated from the diaphysis in early life by a layer of cartilage, the epiphyseal plate.

Tracheotomy is an effective technique most commonly used to restore breathing when there is

A. respiratory pathway obstruction above the larynx B. crushed tracheal rings owing to trauma. C. respiratory pathway closure owing to inflammation and swelling D. all the above

A
If obstruction of the breathing passageways occurs in the upper respiratory tract, above the larynx (i.e., in the nose or pharynx), tracheotomy may be performed to restore breathing

An acute infection of the lungs is called

A. atelectasis. B. pneumothorax. C. pneumonia. D. COPD.

C
Pneumonia is an acute infection of the lung parenchyma characterized by productive cough, chest pain, fever, and chills and frequently accompanied by rales. Atelectasis is partial or complete collapse of a lung or lobe of a lung.

In which of the following positions/projections will the talocalcaneal joint be visualized?

A. Dorsoplantar projection of the foot B. Plantodorsal projection of the os calcis C. Medial oblique position of the foot D. Lateral foot

In the anterior oblique position of the cervical spine, the CR should be directed

A. parallel to C4 B. perpendicular to C4 C. 15 degrees cephalad to C4 D. 15 degrees caudad to C4.

D
The anterior oblique positions (LAO and RAO) of the cervical spine require a 15-degree caudal

To demonstrate a profile view of the glenoid fossa, the patient is AP recumbent and obliqued 45 degrees

A. toward the affected side B. away from the affected side C. with the arm at the side in the anatomic position D. with the arm in external rotation

A
With the patient obliqued 45 degrees toward the affected side, the glenohumeral joint is open, and the glenoid fossa is seen in profile.

Which of the following is (are) located on the anterior aspect of the femur?

1. Patellar surface

2. Intertrochanteric crest

3. Linea aspera

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A
The femoral shaft is bowed slightly anteriorly and presents a long, narrow ridge posteriorly called the linea aspera

The intertrochanteric crest runs obliquely between the trochanters;

The lumbar transverse process is represented by what part of the "Scotty dog" seen in a correctly positioned oblique lumbar spine?

A. Eye B. Nose C. Body D. Ear

The submentovertical (SMV) oblique axial projection of the zygomatic arches requires that the skull be rotated

A. 15 degrees toward the affected side. B. 15 degrees away from the affected side. C. 45 degrees toward the affected side. D. 45 degrees away from the affected side.

All the following are posterior structures except

A. the linea aspera. B. the intertrochanteric line. C. the popliteal surface. D. the intercondyloid fossa.

B
The intertrochanteric crest runs obliquely between the trochanters;

The CR will parallel the intervertebral foramina in which of the following projections?

1. Lateral cervical spine

2. Lateral thoracic spine

3. Lateral lumbar spine

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following positions is obtained with the patient lying supine on the radiographic table with the CR directed horizontally to the iliac crest?

A. Left lateral decubitus position B. Right lateral decubitus position C. Ventral decubitus position D. Dorsal decubitus position

To demonstrate the glenoid fossa in profile, the patient is positioned

A. 45 degrees oblique, affected side up. B. 45 degrees oblique, affected side down. C. 25 degrees oblique, affected side up. D. 25 degrees oblique, affected side down.

B

The patient is positioned in a 45-degree oblique, affected-side-down position, which places the glenoid fossa approximately perpendicular to the IR.

Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor?

A. BE B. Upper GI C. IVU D. Bone survey

C

Wilm's tumor is a rapidly developing tumor of the kidney(s).

Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation?

A. AP B. Lateral C. 30-degree RPO D. 45-degree LPO

C

(apophyseal joints) of the L5-S1 articulation form a 30-degree angle with the MSP;

The 45-degree oblique position demonstrates the apophyseal joints of L1–4.

The sternoclavicular joints are best demonstrated with the patient PA and

A. in a slight oblique position, affected side adjacent to the IR B. in a slight oblique position, affected side away from the IR C. erect and weight-bearing D. erect with and without weights

A

The PA oblique projection (LAO or RAO position) of the sternoclavicular joint demonstrates the SC joint nearest the image receptor

AP erect left and right bending images of the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae, to include 1 inch of the iliac crest, are performed to demonstrate

A. spondylolisthesis. B. subluxation. C. scoliosis. D. arthritis.

Adult orthoroentgenography, or radiographic measurement of long bones of an upper or lower extremity, requires which of the following accessories?

1. Bell-Thompson scale

2. Bucky tray

3. Cannula

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B

A cannula is a tube placed in a cavity to introduce or withdraw material and is unrelated to orthoroentgenography

Which of the following structures will usually contain air, in the PA recumbent position on a sthenic patient, during a double-contrast upper GI (UGI) examination?

A. Duodenal bulb B. Descending duodenum C. Pyloric vestibule D. Gastric fundus

D

The stomach is normally angled with the fundus lying posteriorly and the body, pylorus, and duodenum inferior to the fundus and angling anteriorly.

Therefore, when the patient ingests barium and lies AP recumbent, the heavy barium gravitates easily to the fundus and fills it

Which of the following projections of the ankle would best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular joint?

A. Medial oblique 15° to 20° B. Lateral oblique 15° to 20° C. Medial oblique 45° D. Lateral oblique 45°

C

To best demonstrate the distal tibiofibular articulation, a 45° medial oblique projection of the ankle is required. The 15° medial oblique is used to demonstrate the ankle mortise (joint)

Parotid

Sublingual

Mastoid

Submandibular

A) Sublingual

(B) Submandibular

(C) Parotid

(D) Mastoid

Muscles that contribute to the formation of the rotator cuff include the

1. subscapularis.

2. infraspinatus.

3. teres minor.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Tangential axial projections of the patella can be obtained in which of the following positions?

1.supine flexion 45° (Merchant)2.prone flexion 90° (Settegast)3.prone flexion 55° (Hughston)
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3 only

Which of the following bones participate in the formation of the acetabulum?

1.Ilium 2.Ischium 3.Pubis
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D
The upper two fifths of the acetabulum is formed by the ilium, the lower anterior one fifth is formed by the pubis, and the lower posterior two-fifths is formed by the ischium.

Important considerations for radiographic examinations of traumatic injuries to the upper extremity include

1. the joint closest to the injured site should be supported during movement of the limb.

2. both joints must be included in long bone studies.

3. two views, at 90 degrees to each other, are required.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C
In the case of an injured limb, both joints must be supported if any movement is required.

Which of the following precautions should be observed when radiographing a patient who has sustained a traumatic injury to the hip?

1. When a fracture is suspected, manipulation of the affected extremity should be performed by a physician.

2. The axiolateral projection should be avoided.

3. To evaluate the entire region, the pelvis typically is included in the initial examination.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B
traumatic injury to the hip requires a cross-table (axiolateral) lateral projection, as well as an AP projection of the entire pelvis.

A physician should perform any required manipulation of the traumatized hip.

Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of

1. uterine tubal patency

2. mass lesions in the uterine cavity

3. uterine position

A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D
Hysterosalpingography may be performed for demonstration of uterine tubal patency, mass lesions in the uterine cavity, and uterine position.

Which of the following positions is most likely to place the right kidney parallel to the IR?

A. AP B. PA C. RPO D. LPO

D
With the AP oblique projections (RPO and LPO positions), the kidney that is farther away is placed parallel to the IR, and the kidney that is closer is placed perpendicular to the IR.

With the patient in the PA position and the OML and CR perpendicular to the IR, the resulting radiograph will demonstrate the petrous pyramids

A. below the orbits B. in the lower third of the orbits C. completely within the orbits D. above the orbits

C
In this position, the petrous pyramids should completely fill the orbits.
When caudal angulation is used with this position, the petrous pyramids are projected in the lower portion, or out of, the orbits.

A compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head and associated with an anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint is called a(an)

A. Hill-Sachs defect. B. Bankart lesion. C. rotator cuff tear. D. adhesive capsulitis.

Types of structural damage to a DNA molecule by ionizing radiation include which of the following?

1. single-side-rail scission

2. double-side-rail scission

3. cross-linking

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D
Possible damage to the DNA molecule is diverse. A single main-chain/side-rail scission (break) on the DNA molecule is repairable. A double main-chain/side-rail scission may be repaired with difficulty or may result in cell death. A double main-chain/side-rail scission on the same rung of the DNA ladder results in irreparable damage or cell death.

If a patient received 2000 mrad during a 10-minute fluoroscopic examination, what was the dose rate?

A. 0.2 rad/min B. 2.0 rad/min C. 5 rad/min D. 200 rad/min

Which of the following women is likely to have the most homogeneous glandular breast tissue?

A. A postpubertal adolescent B. A 20-year-old with one previous pregnancy C. A menopausal woman D. A postmenopausal 65-year-old

A
Breast tissue is most dense, glandular, and radiographically homogeneous in appearance in the postpubertal adolescent.

Which of the following interactions between x-ray photons and matter involves a high-energy photon and the ejection of an outer shell electron?

A. Photoelectric effect B. Coherent scatter C. Compton scatter D. Pair production

C
Compton scattering is a relatively high-energy incident photon uses part of its energy to eject an outer shell electron, and in doing so changes its direction (is scattered).

In the photoelectric effect , a relatively low energy photon uses all its energy to eject an inner shell electron, leaving a vacancy.

Which of the following is (are) valid criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm?

1. The radius and ulna should be superimposed proximally and distally. 2. The coronoid process and radial head should be superimposed. 3. The radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C
only superimposed distally

An aspirated foreign body is more likely to enter the lower respiratory tract via the

A. left main stem bronchus. B. right main stem bronchus. C. bronchioles. D. alveoli.

B
The right main stem bronchus is shorter, wider , and more vertical than the left—making it the most likely route for aspirated foreign bodies to enter the right lung

The femoral neck can be located

A. parallel to the femoral shaft. B. perpendicular to the femoral shaft. C. perpendicular to a line drawn from the ASIS to the pubic symphysis. D. perpendicular to a line from the iliac crest to the pubic symphysis.

Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?

1. Spleen

2. Gallbladder

3. Hepatic flexure

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

The thoracic apophyseal joints are demonstrated with the

A. coronal plane 90 degrees to the IR B. midsagittal plane 90 degrees to the IR C. coronal plane 20 degrees to the IR D. midsagittal plane 20 degrees to the IR.

D
The thoracic apophyseal joints are demonstrated in an oblique position with the coronal plane 70 degrees to the IR (MSP 20 degrees to the IR).

"20" degree off lateral

The right posterior oblique (RPO) position of the left acetabulum will demonstrate the

1. posterior rim of the left acetabulum.

2. left anterior iliopubic column.

3. left iliac wing.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B
right iliac wing will be demonstrated in this position

The AP axial projection of the chest for pulmonary apices

1. requires 15 to 20 degrees of cephalad angulation

2. projects the apices above the clavicles

3. should demonstrate the medial ends of the clavicles equidistant from the vertebral column

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C
A 15- to 20-degree cephalad angle projects the clavicles above the apices.

Which projection(s) of the abdomen would be used to demonstrate pneumoperitoneum?

1.Right lateral decubitus2.Left lateral decubitus3.Upright
A. 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C
An erect abdomen or left lateral decubitus should be performed for demonstration of air–fluid levels in the abdomen.
The right lateral decubitus is used to demonstrate the layering of gallstones. It will not show free air within the peritoneum because of the overlying gastric bubble on the elevated left side of the body.

The functions of which body system include mineral homeostasis, protection, and triglyceride storage?

A. Endocrine B. Integumentary C. Skeletal D. Muscular

C
T he skeleton's design functions to protect vital internal organs such as the heart and lungs. Bone stores important minerals (e.g., calcium and phosphorus) and releases them into the blood as needed.

A flat and upright abdomen is requested on an acutely ill patient, to demonstrate the presence of air-fluid levels. Because of the patient's condition, the x-ray table can be tilted upright only 70° (rather than the desired 90°). How should the central ray be directed?

A. Perpendicular to the IR B. Parallel to the floor C. 20° caudad D. 20° cephalad

B
If the radiographer were to compensate for this by directing the central ray perpendicular to the IR (angling 20° caudad), it is very possible that any air-fluid level would be blurred and indistinct, and would go unrecognized.

During an air-contrast BE, in what part of the colon is air most likely to be visualized with the body in the AP recumbent position?

A. Transverse colon B. Descending colon C. Ascending colon D. Left and right colic flexures

A
During a double-contrast BE, barium and air will distribute themselves according to the position of parts of the colon within the body and according to body position.
When the body is in the AP position, the most anterior structures will be air filled. Anterior structures include the transverse colon and a portion of the sigmoid colon.

Structures involved in blowout fractures include the

1. orbital floor

2. inferior rectus muscle

3. zygoma

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B
The orbital floor is caused to collapse; this carries the inferior rectus muscle through the fracture site and into the maxillary sinus

With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15- to 20-degree caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to

A. 10 to 15 degrees caudal B. 25 to 30 degrees caudal C. 15 to 20 degrees cephalic D. 3 to 5 degrees caudal

A
In the adult skull, the OML and IOML are about 7 degrees apart. In a baby or small child, the difference is larger, about 15 degrees apart.

To make a patient as comfortable as possible during a single-contrast barium enema (BE), the radiographer should

1. instruct the patient to relax the abdominal muscles to prevent intra-abdominal pressure

2. instruct the patient to concentrate on breathing deeply to reduce colonic spasm

3. prepare a warm barium suspension (98–105°F) to aid in retention

A. 2 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B
The barium suspension should be either just below body temperature (at 85–90°F) to prevent injury and bowel irritation or cold (at 41°F) to produce less colonic irritation and to stimulate contraction of the anal sphincter

The articular facets of L5-S1 are best demonstrated in a(n)

A. AP projection B. 30-degree oblique C. 75-degree oblique D. AP axial

B
Lumbar articular facets, forming the apophyseal joints, are demonstrated in the oblique position. L1 through L4 are best demonstrated in a 45-degree oblique, while L5-S1 are best seen in the 30-degree oblique

The ileocecal valve normally is located in which of the following body regions?

A. Right iliac B. Left iliac C. Right lumbar D. Hypogastric

A
T he lower lateral regions are the left and right iliac, with the hypogastric region between them. The ileocecal valve, cecum, and appendix (if present) are located in the lower right abdomen

A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

1. Radial head

2. Capitulum

3. Coronoid process

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B
With the elbow flexed 90 degrees and the CR directed to the elbow joint at an angle of 45 degrees medially (i.e., toward the shoulder), the joint space between the radial head and capitulum should be revealed

An injury to a structure located on the side opposite that of the primary injury is referred to as

A. blowout B. Le Fort C. contracture D. contrecoup

D
Contracture refers to shortening of muscle fibers.

During lower-limb venography, tourniquets are applied above the knee and ankle to

1.suppress filling of the superficial veins.2.coerce filling of the deep veins.3.fill the anterior tibial vein.
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

A
The anterior tibial vein should NOT be blocked when tourniquets are used.

The major difference between excretory and retrograde urography is that

A. they each require a different type of contrast agent. B. intravenous studies require more images. C. retrograde studies do not demonstrate function. D. more contrast medium–induced adverse reactions occur in retrograde studies.

C
Retrograde urography requires ureteral catheterization so that a contrast medium can be introduced directly into the pelvicalyceal system. This procedure provides excellent opacification and structural information but does not demonstrate the function of these structures

In the lateral projection of the ankle, the

1. talotibial joint is visualized.

2. talofibular joint is visualized.

3. tibia and fibula are superimposed.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C
The talofibular joint is not visualized because of superimposition with other bony structures.

The contraction and expansion of arterial walls in accordance with forceful contraction and relaxation of the heart are called

A. hypertension B. elasticity C. pulse D. pressure

C
The arterial walls pulsate in unison with the heart's contractions. This movement may be detected with the fingers in various parts of the body and is referred to as the pulse.

A lesion with a stalk projecting from the intestinal mucosa into the lumen is a(n)

A. fistula B. polyp C. diverticulum D. abscess

B
A polyp is a tumor with a pedicle (stalk) that is found commonly in vascular organs projecting inward from its mucosal wall.

A fistula is an abnormal tube-like passageway between organs

Which of the following examinations is used to demonstrate vesicoureteral reflux?

A. Retrograde urogram B. Intravenous urogram (IVU) C. Voiding cystourethrogram D. Retrograde cystogram

A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following?

1. Sacral vertebrae

2. Thoracic vertebrae

3. Lumbar vertebrae

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 3 only D. 1 and 3 only

Which of the following positions can be used to effectively demonstrate the left colic flexure during radiographic examination of the large bowel?

1. RAO

2. LAO

3. RPO

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 and 3 only

D
To "open" the flexures, oblique projections are required. The left anterior oblique (LAO, left PA oblique) and right posterior oblique (RPO, right AP oblique) positions are used to demonstrate the splenic flexure.

The advantages of digital subtraction angiography over film angiography include

1. greater sensitivity to contrast medium

2. immediately available images

3. increased resolution

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B
digital doesn't increase resolution

Which of the following may be used to evaluate the glenohumeral joint?

1.Scapular Y projection2.Inferosuperior axial3.Transthoracic lateral
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

The laryngeal prominence is formed by the

A. thyroid gland B. thyroid cartilage C. vocal cords D. pharynx

B
The laryngeal prominence, or "Adam's apple," is formed by the thyroid cartilage —the principal cartilage of the larynx.

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the PA axial projection of the cranium?

1.The central ray is directed caudally to the OML.2.The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits.3.The frontal sinuses are visualized.
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Demonstration of the posterior fat pad on the lateral projection of the adult elbow can be caused by

1. trauma or other pathology

2. greater than 90-degree flexion

3. less than 90-degree flexion

A. 1 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 1 and 3 only

D
posterior fat pad is visible in cases or trauma or other pathology and when the elbow is insufficiently flexed

The innominate bone is located in the

A. middle cranial fossa B. posterior cranial fossa C. foot D. pelvis

D
The two innominate bones (os coxae) make up the pelvis .

Which cholangiographic procedure uses an indwelling drainage tube for contrast medium administration?

A. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiographic pancreatography (ERCP) B. Operative cholangiography C. T-tube cholangiography D. Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography

n which position of the shoulder is the greater tubercle seen superimposed on the humeral head?

A. AP B. External rotation C. Internal rotation D. Neutral position

Which of the following structures is (are) located in the right upper quadrant (RUQ)?

1. Hepatic flexure

2. Gallbladder

3. Ileocecal valve

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B
The cecum, located in the right lower quadrant (RLQ), is continuous with the terminal ileum—forming the ileocecal valve.

Which of the following should be demonstrated in a true AP projection of the clavicle?

1. Clavicular body

2. Acromioclavicular joint

3. Sternocostal joint

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B
sternocostal joint is the articulation between the sternum and rib and is not delineated in the AP clavicle image.

The first carpometacarpal joint is formed by the articulation of the base of the first metacarpal and the

A. distal radius. B. distal ulna. C. scaphoid. D. trapezium.

Which of the following should be performed to rule out subluxation or fracture of the cervical spine?

A. Oblique cervical spine, seated B. AP cervical spine, recumbent C. Horizontal beam lateral D. Laterals in flexion and extension

C
When a cervical spine radiograph is requested to rule out subluxation or fracture, the patient will arrive in the radiology area on a stretcher. The patient should not be moved before a subluxation is ruled out

Characteristics of a patient with pulmonary emphysema include

1. shoulder girdle elevation

2. increased AP diameter of the chest

3. hyperventilation

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B
Breathing is shallow and rapid. Forced and ineffective breathing results in expansion of the AP diameter of the chest and elevated shoulder girdle in established emphysema. Hyperventilation results from too frequent deep breaths in the anxious or tense individual.

With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

A. Radial head B. Ulnar head C. Coronoid process D. Olecranon process

C

elbow flexed 90 degrees and the CR directed to the elbow joint at an angle of 45 degrees medially (i.e., toward the shoulder), the joint space between the radial head and capitulum should be revealed.

elbow flexed 80 degrees and the CR directed to the elbow joint at an angle of 45 degrees laterally (i.e., from the shoulder toward the elbow), the elongated coronoid process will be visualized.

The apophyseal articulations of the thoracic spine are demonstrated with the

A. coronal plane 45° to the IR. B. midsagittal plane 45° to the IR. C. coronal plane 70° to the IR. D. midsagittal plane 70° to the IR.

C

The thoracic apophyseal joints are demonstrated by placing the patient in an oblique position with the coronal plane 70° to the IR (MSP 20° to the IR).

Which of the following interventional procedures can be used to increase the diameter of a stenosed vessel?

1. Percutaneous transluminal angioplasty (PTA)

2. Stent placement

3. Peripherally inserted central catheter (PICC line)

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B

(PICC) is also placed under fluoroscopic control. It is simply a venous access catheter that can be left in place for several months.

Shoulder arthrography is performed to

1. evaluate humeral luxation

2. demonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear

3. evaluate the glenoid labrum

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C

Routine radiographs demonstrate arthritis, and the addition of a transthoracic humerus or scapular Y projection would be used to demonstrate luxation (dislocation).

Following the ingestion of a fatty meal, what hormone is secreted by the duodenal mucosa to stimulate contraction of the gallbladder?

A. Insulin B. Cholecystokinin C. Adrenocorticotropic hormone D. Gastrin

B

Think "chole" for gallbladder

All the following can be associated with the distal ulna except

A. head. B. radioulnar joint. C. styloid process. D. trochlear notch.

D

trochlear notch is proximal

If your patient is unable to stay erect for a paranasal sinus examination, which of the following alternatives should be chosen?

A. Recumbent AP B. Lateral recumbent C. Lateral cross-table recumbent D. Recumbent Waters'

C

The only way air-fluid levels can be demonstrated is to have the central ray parallel the floor, as in erect, decubitus, and cross-table projections.

Which of the following articulations may be described as diarthrotic?

1. Knee

2. Intervertebral joints

3. Temporomandibular joint (TMJ)

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C

Diarthrotic, or synovial, joints, such as the knee and the TMJ, are freely movable

Which of the following statements regarding the scapular Y projection of the shoulder is (are) true?

1. The midsagittal plane should be about 60 degrees to the IR.

2. The scapular borders should be superimposed on the humeral shaft.

3. An oblique projection of the shoulder is obtained.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C

The scapular Y projection requires that the coronal plane be about 60 degrees to the IR (MSP is about 30 degrees),

Which of the following is (are) required for a lateral projection of the skull?

1. The IOML is parallel to the IR.

2. The MSP is parallel to the IR.

3. The CR enters ¾ inch superior and anterior to the EAM.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B

The CR should enter about 2 inches superior to the EAM

The AP axial projection, or "frog leg" position, of the femoral neck places the patient in a supine position with the affected thigh

A. adducted 25 degrees from the horizontal B. abducted 25 degrees from the vertical C. adducted 40 degrees from the horizontal D. abducted 40 degrees from the vertical

D

The patient is supine with the leg abducted (drawn away from the midline) approximately 40 degrees.

Each of the following statements regarding respiratory structures is true except

A. the left lung has two lobes B. the lower portion of the lung is the base C. each lung is enclosed in peritoneum D. the main stem bronchus enters the lung hilum

C

The lungs are enclosed in a double-walled serous membrane called the pleura.

Movement of a part toward the midline of the body is termed

A. eversion B. inversion C. abduction D. adduction

Which of the following procedures requires that contrast medium be injected into the ureters?

A. Cystogram B. Urethrogram C. Retrograde pyelogram D. Cystourethrogram

C

retrograde (because contrast is being introduced against the normal direction of flow) pyelogram

A lateral projection of the larynx is occasionally required to rule out foreign body, polyps, or tumor. The CR should be directed

A. just below the EAM B. to the level of the mandibular angles C. to the level of the laryngeal prominence D. to the level of C7

C

The lateral projection is positioned as for a lateral cervical spine projection and is centered to the coronal plane passing through the trachea (anterior to the cervical spine) at the level of the laryngeal prominence

To obtain an EXACT axial projection of the clavicle, place the patient

A. supine and angle the central ray 30° caudally. B. prone and angle the central ray 30° cephalad. C. supine and angle the central ray 15° cephalad. D. in a lordotic position and direct the central ray at right angles to the coronal plane of the clavicle.

The patient usually is required to drink barium sulfate suspension in order to demonstrate which of the following structures?

1. Descending duodenum

2. Ilium

3. Splenic flexure

A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 only

A

ilium is in the pelvis

ilieum is in the small bowel

Place the following anatomic structures in order from anterior to posterior:

1. Trachea2. Apex of heart3. Esophagus
A. Trachea, esophagus, apex of heart B. Esophagus, trachea, apex of heart C. Apex of heart, trachea, esophagus D. Apex of heart, esophagus, trachea

With which of the following does the femoral head articulate?

1. Ilium

2. Ischium

3. Pubis

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Valid evaluation criteria for a lateral projection of the forearm requires that

1. the epicondyles be parallel to the IR.

2. the radius and ulna be superimposed distally.

3. the radial tuberosity should face anteriorly.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C

humeral epicondyles are perpendicular to the IR and superimposed

The coronoid process should be visualized in profile in which of the following positions?

A. Scapular Y B. AP scapula C. Medial oblique elbow D. Lateral oblique elbow

C

coronoid process is seen on medial oblique (it's on the ulna)

Which of the following pathologic conditions require(s) a decrease in exposure factors?

1. Pneumothorax

2. Emphysema

3. Multiple myeloma

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D

Pneumothorax is a collection of air or gas in the pleural cavity.

Emphysema

Multiple myeloma is characterized by infiltration and destruction of bone and marrow.

The term varus refers to

A. turned outward B. turned inward C. rotated medially D. rotated laterally

Rlladiography of which of the following structure(s) in the AP or PA position will inherently result in an image demonstrating shape distortion of the anatomic part?

1. Kidney

2. Scaphoid

3. Sigmoid

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

D

all have shape distortion

Which of the following is (are) associated with a Colles' fracture?

1. Transverse fracture of the radial head

2. Chip fracture of the ulnar styloid

3. Posterior or backward displacement

A. 1 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C

A Colles fracture  "colles = falls" is caused by a fall onto an outstretched (extended) hand to "brake" a fall. The wrist then suffers an impacted transverse fracture of the distal inch of the radius with an accompanying chip fracture of the ulnar styloid process.

AP stress studies of the ankle may be performed

1. to demonstrate fractures of the distal tibia and fibula

2. following inversion or eversion injuries

3. to demonstrate a ligament tear

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C

not fractures of the tib/fib

Which of the following structures should be visualized through the foramen magnum in an AP axial projection (Towne method) of the skull for occipital bone?

1. Posterior clinoid processes

2. Dorsum sella

3. Posterior arch of C1

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 2 only D. 2 and 3 only

Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?

A. Nephrotomography B. Retrograde urography C. Cystourethrography D. IVU

B

going up ureter = retrograde

Pacemaker electrodes can be introduced through a vein in the chest or upper extremity, from where they are advanced to the

A. left atrium B. right atrium C. left ventricle D. right ventricle

D

The lead is introduced under fluoroscopic guidance into the subclavian vein, then moved to the right atrium, and finally positioned at the apex of the right ventricle.

The intertrochanteric crest is located on the

A. proximal posterior femur. B. proximal anterior femur. C. distal posterior femur. D. distal anterior femur.

A

posterior side by femoral neck

Which of the following may be used as landmark(s) for an AP projection of the hip?

1. 2 in. medial to the ASIS

2. Prominence of the greater trochanter

3. Midway between the iliac crest and the pubic symphysis

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B

midway between the iliac crest and the pubic symphysis is too superior and medial to coincide with the hip articulation

Which of the following equipment is necessary for ERCP?

1. A fluoroscopic unit with imaging device and tilt-table capabilities

2. A fiberoptic endoscope

3. Polyethylene catheters

A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

The pyloric canal and duodenal bulb are best demonstrated during an upper GI series in which of the following positions?

A. RAO B. Left lateral C. Recumbent PA D. Recumbent AP

Which of the following bones participate(s) in the formation of the obturator foramen?

1. Ilium

2. Ischium

3. Pubis

A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

Which of the following radiologic examinations requires preparation consisting of a low-residue diet, cathartics, and enemas?

A. Upper GI series B. Small bowel series C. Barium enema (BE) D. Intravenous (IV) cystogram

Which surface of the forearm must be adjacent to the IR to obtain a lateral projection of the fourth finger with optimal recorded detail?

A. Anterior B. Posterior C. Medial D. Lateral

With the patient's head in a PA position and the CR directed 20 degrees cephalad, which part of the mandible will be best visualized?

A. Symphysis B. Rami C. Body D. Angle

At what level do the carotid arteries bifurcate?

A. Foramen magnum B. Trachea C. Pharynx D. C4

Which projection of the foot will best demonstrate the longitudinal arch?

A. Mediolateral B. Lateromedial C. Lateral weight-bearing D. 30-degree medial oblique

C

The longitudinal arch facilitates walking and is evaluated radiographically in lateral weight-bearing (erect) projections.

The tarsals and metatarsals are arranged to form the

1.transverse arch.2.longitudinal arch.3.oblique arch.
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

B
The tarsals and metatarsals of the foot are arranged so as to form two arches: the transverse and the longitudinal (which has two parts—lateral and medial).

The floor of the cranium includes all the following bones except

A. the temporal bones B. the occipital bone C. the ethmoid bone D. the sphenoid bone

B
The bones that comprise the floor of the cranium are the two temporals , the ethmoid , and the sphenoid.

For the average patient, the CR for a lateral projection of a barium-filled stomach should enter

A. midway between the midcoronal line and the anterior abdominal surface B. midway between the vertebral column and the lateral border of the abdomen C. at the midcoronal line at the level of the iliac crest D. perpendicular to the level of L2

A
When the patient is in the LPO or RAO position, the CR should be directed midway between the vertebral column and the lateral border of the abdomen. For the PA projection, the CR is directed perpendicular to the IR at the level of L2.

Graves disease is associated with

A. thyroid underactivity B. thyroid overactivity C. adrenal underactivity D. adrenal overactivity

B
Graves disease is the most frequently occurring form of hyperthyroidism . Graves disease is an autoimmune disorder whose symptoms include enlargement of the thyroid gland

"graves is overactive"

Which of the following statements regarding myelography is (are) correct?

1. Spinal puncture may be performed in the prone or flexed lateral position.

2. Contrast medium distribution is regulated through x-ray tube angulation.

3. The patient's neck must be in extension during Trendelenburg positions.

A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C
Myelography is radiologic examination of the structures within the spinal canal. The contrast medium is distributed to the vertebral region of interest by gravity; the TABLE is angled

Synovial fluid is associated with the

A. brain. B. spinal canal. C. peritoneal cavity. D. bony articulations.

D
Fluid associated with the brain and spinal canal is cerebrospinal fluid

Which of the following positions is used to demonstrate vertical patellar fractures and the patellofemoral articulation?

A. AP knee B. Lateral knee C. Tangential patella D. Tunnel view

C
tangential (sunrise) projection of the patella, the CR is directed parallel to the longitudinal plane of the patella, thereby demonstrating a vertical fracture and providing the best view of the patellofemoral articulation

A type of cancerous bone tumor occurring in children and young adults and arising from bone marrow is

A. Ewing sarcoma B. multiple myeloma C. enchondroma D. osteochondroma

A
The disease is characterized by new bone formation in a layering effect—giving the bone the characteristic "onion peel" appearance radiographically.

All the following procedures demonstrate renal function except

A. IVP. B. descending urography. C. retrograde urography. D. infusion nephrotomography.

C
Retrograde urography involves introduction of contrast medium into the kidneys via catheter, thereby demonstrating their structure but not their function.

The RAO position is used to project the sternum to the left of the thoracic vertebrae in order to take advantage of

A. pulmonary markings B. heart shadow C. posterior ribs D. costal cartilages

B
heart superimposes a homogeneous density over the sternum in the RAO position, thus providing clearer radiographic visualization of its bony structure.

To demonstrate the mandibular body in the PA position, the

A. CR is directed perpendicular to the IR. B. CR is directed cephalad to the IR. C. skull is obliqued away from the affected side. D. skull is obliqued toward the affected side.

A
PA projection (0 degrees), with CR directed perpendicular to the IR, effectively demonstrates the mandibular body. In this position, the rami and condyles are superimposed on the occipital bone and petrous portion of the temporal bone.

All are true except

A. for radiography of the kidneys, the CR should be directed midway between the diaphragm and the symphysis pubis. B. if a pediatric patient is in respiratory distress, a chest radiograph should be obtained in the AP projection rather than in the standard PA projection. C. chest radiography on a neonate should be performed in the supine position. D. radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the supine position.

D
Radiography of pediatric patients with a myelomeningocele defect should be performed in the prone position rather than in the routine supine position. The supine position would put unnecessary pressure on the protrusion of the meninges and spinal cord.

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in the lateral projection of the thoracic spine?

1. Intervertebral spaces

2. Apophyseal joints

3. Intervertebral foramina

A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2, and 3

C
The thoracic apophyseal joints are 70 degrees to the MSP and are demonstrated in a steep (70-degree) oblique position.

Arteries and veins enter and exit the medial aspect of each lung at the

A. root B. hilus C. carina D. epiglottis

B
The hilus (hilum) is the slit-like opening on the medial aspect of the lung through which arteries, veins, lymphatics, and so forth enter and exit. The carina is an internal ridge located at the bifurcation of the trachea into right and left primary, or main stem, bronchi.

Which of the following positions would demonstrate the right lumbar apophyseal articulations closest to the IR?

A. LAO B. RAO C. LPO D. RPO

D
The posterior oblique positions (i.e., LPO and RPO) of the lumbar vertebrae demonstrate the apophyseal joints closer to the IR. The left apophyseal joints are demonstrated in the LPO position, whereas the right apophyseal joints are demonstrated in the RPO position.

A frontal view of the sternum is best accomplished in which of the following positions?

A. AP B. PA C. RAO D. LAO

C
Because the sternum and vertebrae would be superimposed in a direct PA or AP projection, a slight oblique (just enough to separate the sternum from superimposition on the vertebrae) is used instead

The thoracic cavity is lined by

A. parietal pleura. B. visceral pleura. C. parietal peritoneum. D. visceral peritoneum.

A
The parietal peritoneum lines the abdominal cavity, and the visceral peritoneum invests the abdominal viscera.

Medial displacement of a tibial fracture would be best demonstrated in the

A. AP projection B. lateral projection C. medial oblique projection D. lateral oblique projection

A
A frontal projection (AP or PA) demonstrates the medial and lateral relationships of structures. A lateral projection demonstrates the anterior and posterior relationships of structures.

Which projection of the stomach would best demonstrate a diaphragmatic herniation?

Which projection will best demonstrate the Retrogastric space?

What is the recommended oblique projection and position for the best demonstration of the esophagus?

What part of the stomach is not commonly seen in a PA projection on a patient with a Hypersthenic body habitus what can be done to help better visualization?