Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge * Aptitude tests interest inventories achievement tests projective tests?

1 Human Resource Management, 15e (Dessler) Chapter 6 Employee Testing and Selection 1) Which of the following terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards? A) employment malpractice B) negligent hiring C) improper hiring D) invalid screening Answer: B Explanation: B) Negligent hiring means hiring employees with criminal records or other problems who then use access to customers' homes (or similar opportunities) to commit crimes. Employers can be sued for negligent hiring. Objective: 1 Learning Outcome: 6.1 Answer the question: Why is it important to test and select employees? 2) A reliable employment test will most likely yield. A) consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test B) improved scores when a person takes the same test more than once in a single day C) high scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test on different occasions D) similar scores when two different people are administered the test at different times Answer: A Explanation: A) Reliability is a test's first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. 1

2 3) If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is. A) valid B) invalid C) reliable D) unreliable Answer: D Explanation: D) Reliability is a test's first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. If a person scores 70 on an intelligence test on a Monday and 110 when retested on Tuesday, you probably wouldn't have much faith in the test. AACSB: Application of Knowledge 4) If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is. A) valid B) invalid C) reliable D) unreliable Explanation: C) A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. Scores of 78 and 79 on the same test suggest that the test is reliable because it is measuring with consistency. AACSB: Application of Knowledge 2

3 5) Which of the following terms refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with alternate forms of the same test? A) equivalency B) reliability C) expectancy D) validity Answer: B Explanation: B) Reliability is a test's first requirement and refers to its consistency: A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. 6) Which of the following best describes how to use a test-retest reliability estimate to assess reliability? A) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to effectively perform the job in question B) administer the same test to different people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1 C) administer different tests to a group of people and compare the range of collected test scores D) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with their scores at time 1 Answer: D Explanation: D) There are several ways to estimate consistency or reliability. You could administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time, comparing their test scores at time two with their scores at time one; this would be a retest estimate. 3

4 7) Which of the following measures reliability by administering two different yet comparable tests and then comparing the two test scores? A) retest estimate B) equivalent form estimate C) internal comparison estimate D) criterion validity measurement Answer: B Explanation: B) An equivalent or alternate form estimate involves administering a test and then administering what experts believe to be an equivalent test later. 8) is used as an estimate of reliability and involves administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses to the items vary together. A) Retest estimate B) Equivalent form estimate C) Content validity estimate D) Internal comparison estimate Answer: D Explanation: D) A test's internal consistency is another reliability measure. For example, a psychologist includes 10 items on a test of vocational interests, believing that they all measure, in various ways, the test taker's interest in working outdoors. You administer the test and then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to these 10 items vary together. This would provide a measure of the internal reliability of the test and is known as an internal comparison estimate. 4

5 9) All of the following are used for estimating reliability of a test EXCEPT. A) test-retest estimate B) internal comparison estimate C) equivalent form estimate D) content validity measurement Answer: D Explanation: D) Validity indicates whether a test is measuring what it is supposed to be measuring, while reliability indicates whether a test is measuring something consistently. Internal comparison estimates are used to measure the internal consistency of a test. Test-retest estimates and equivalent form estimates also measure reliability. 10) When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which of the following is most likely being measured? A) test validity B) retest estimate C) internal consistency D) criterion validity Explanation: C) A test's internal consistency is measured by making internal comparison estimates. Internal consistency explains why apparently repetitive questions are found on some test questionnaires. 11) The unreliability of a test is best explained by all of the following EXCEPT. A) poor sampling of question material B) lack of equivalence between tests C) inconsistent testing conditions D) failure to predict job performance Answer: D Explanation: D) Many things could cause a test to be unreliable. For example, the questions may do a poor job of sampling the material or there might be errors due to changes in the testing conditions. A lack of equivalence between tests would also explain a test's unreliability. AACSB: Application of Knowledge 5

6 12) Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was designed? A) reliability B) validity C) expectancy D) consistency Answer: B Explanation: B) Test validity answers the question "Does this test measure what it's supposed to measure?" Validity refers to the correctness of the inferences that we can make based on the test and the accuracy with which a test or interview fulfills the function it was designed to fill. 13) Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be best accomplished by showing that. A) tasks performed on the test are general enough to apply to any type of job B) higher test scores are statistically equivalent to proven, long-term job success C) the test is representative of important aspects of performance on the job D) scores on the test are both internally and externally reliable Explanation: C) Demonstrating content validity can be accomplished by showing that the tasks the person performs on the test are really a comprehensive and random sample of the tasks performed on the job. 14) The first step in the test validation process is. A) creating a test battery B) administering tests C) analyzing the job D) cross-validating Explanation: C) The first step in validating a test is to analyze the job and write job descriptions and job specifications. The point is to specify the human traits and skills you believe are required for adequate job performance. 6

7 15) Which of the following is a graph that shows the relationship between test scores and job performance for a group of people? A) performance standard B) digital dashboard C) competency model D) expectancy chart Answer: D Explanation: D) If there is a correlation between test and job performance, you can develop an expectancy chart during the process of validating an employment test. An expectancy chart presents the relationship between test scores and job performance graphically. 16) What is the primary disadvantage of using concurrent validation? A) Current employees may not be representative of new applicants. B) New applicants are recent college graduates with limited experience. C) Limited correlation exists between high test scores and job performance. D) Test batteries have not been administered by professional industrial psychologists. Answer: A Explanation: A) With concurrent validation, the test scores of current employees are compared with their current job performance. The disadvantage is that current employees may not be representative of new applicants because current employees have already had on-the-job training. 7

8 17) validation is considered the most dependable method of validating an employment test. A) Applicable B) Predictive C) Concurrent D) Statistical Answer: B Explanation: B) Predictive validation is a more dependable way to validate a test than concurrent validation, which is the other method. With predictive validation, a test is administered to applicants before hiring. Applicants are hired using only existing selection techniques, not the results of the new tests. After they have been on the job for some time, measure their performance and compare it to their earlier test scores. You can then determine whether you could have used their performance on the new test to predict their subsequent job performance. 18) The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT. A) using a new sample of employees B) administering additional tests C) evaluating the relationship between scores and performance D) developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance Answer: D Explanation: D) Cross-validating involves administering additional tests to a new sample of employees. This final step also requires an assessment of predictive validation and an evaluation of the relationship between scores and job performance. An expectancy chart might be developed but not a scatter plot. 8

9 19) According to the American Psychological Association, all of the following are rights of test takers EXCEPT the right to expect. A) informed consent regarding the use of test results B) scores to be interpreted by qualified individuals C) tests to be the only selection tools for a job D) fairness of the test for all who take it Explanation: C) Tests should be used as supplements and not be the only selection tool. Under the American Psychological Association's (APA) standard for educational and psychological tests, test takers have the right to the confidentiality of test results, the right to informed consent regarding use of these results, the right to expect that only people qualified to interpret the scores will have access to them, and the right to expect the test is fair to all. 20) According to a survey, most employers who administer tests to applicants are measuring. A) job skills B) psychological behaviors C) interpersonal behaviors D) ethical opinions Answer: A Explanation: A) About 41% of companies that the American Management Association surveyed tested applicants for basic skills (defined as the ability to read instructions, write reports, and do arithmetic adequate to perform common workplace tasks). About 67% of the respondents required employees to take job skills tests, and 29% required some form of psychological measurement. 9

10 21) For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following best supports the argument that Golden Creamery should use a certified psychologist to develop preemployment tests? A) Golden Creamery needs to comply with all federal and state laws. B) Golden Creamery competitors use psychologists for test development. C) Golden Creamery strives to create a conscientious organizational culture. D) Golden Creamery needs to ensure that tests are legally and ethically appropriate. Answer: D Explanation: D) Using a psychologist to develop and validate tests will help Golden Creamery remain protected both legally and ethically. Firms are not required by law to use a psychologist for test development. AACSB: Application of Knowledge 10

11 22) For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that Golden Creamery should require franchise owners to use the firm's preemployment tests? A) Hourly employees at Golden Creamery stores typically remain with the company long enough to be promoted to management positions. B) Golden Creamery franchise owners pay an initial franchise fee and receive a percentage of sales royalties in return. C) Annual turnover rates for hourly employees of Golden Creamery stores are three times the rate of comparable businesses. D) Individuals interested in working at a Golden Creamery store can complete online applications on the firm's Web site. Explanation: C) High turnover rates suggest that Golden Creamery has problems hiring the most appropriate employees, which supports the implementation of a testing program. If hourly workers remained at the firm for a long time, then that would suggest the firm's current hiring practices do not need to be modified. AACSB: Application of Knowledge 23) EEO laws require nondiscriminatory selection procedures for protected groups. Answer: TRUE Explanation: During the hiring process, managers need to consider EEO laws, negligent hiring, and defamation. EEO laws require nondiscriminatory selection procedures. 11

12 24) Tests administered for hiring purposes should be both valid and reasonable if used by a firm that adheres to evidence-based human resources. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Reliability and validity are the two requirements of tests. Whether or not a test is reasonable is a matter of opinion. 25) A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Reliability of a test refers to its consistency. Therefore, when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions and earns similar scores, the test is most likely reliable. 26) An internal comparison estimate measures a test's internal consistency. Answer: TRUE Explanation: The internal comparison estimate measures the internal consistency or reliability of a test. Internal consistency is one reason that you find apparently repetitive questions on some test questionnaires. 27) Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at two points in time to determine test equivalence. Answer: FALSE Explanation: An equivalent form estimate occurs when you administer a test and then administer what experts believe to be an equivalent test later. 12

13 28) Content validity is based on showing that the scores on the test are related to job performance. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Criterion validity is a type of validity based on showing that scores on the test (predictors) are related to job performance (criterion). A test that is content valid contains a fair sample of the tasks and skills actually needed for a specific job. 29) Test validity in employment testing is demonstrated through criterion validity and content validity. Answer: TRUE Explanation: The validity of a test is shown through criterion validity and content validity. Content validity indicates that a test is a fair sample of the job's content. Criterion validity relates to the idea that performance on a test equates to performance on the job. 30) Organization-person fit is the primary concern of most employers during the selection process. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Job-person fit is usually the main consideration in selection, but employers should care about organization-person fit as well. Candidates should have the necessary skills for a job, and they should also fit well with the organizational culture. 31) There are five steps in the validation process beginning with analyzing the job and concluding with administering the test. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Although the first step of the validation process begins with job analysis, the last step is revalidating. Administering the test is the third step. 13

14 32) A test battery is based on a combination of several tests that can then measure an array of predictors. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Employers usually don't start with just one test but choose several tests and combine them into a test battery. The test battery aims to measure an array of possible predictors, such as aggressiveness, extroversion, and numerical ability. 33) Employers concerned about ethical and EEO violations may purchase employment tests that have been validated. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Given the EEO and ethical issues involved, many firms use a professional, such as a licensed industrial psychologist or purchase validated tests from companies such as Psychological Assessment Resources. 34) Concurrent validation is the most dependable way to validate a selection test. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Predictive validation is a more dependable way to validate a selection test than concurrent validation. The test is administered before you hire them. 14

15 35) To use predictive validation, one administers the test to applicants before they are hired. The applicants are then hired using existing selection techniques but not the new tests in development. Later, job performance measures are compared to the test scores under development. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Predictive validation is the second and more dependable way to validate a test. Here you administer the test to applicants before you hire them. Then hire these applicants using only existing selection techniques, not the results of the new tests. After they have been on the job for some time, measure their performance and compare it to their earlier test scores. You can then determine whether you could have used their performance on the new test to predict their subsequent job performance. 36) If there is a correlation between test and job performance, one can develop an expectancy chart to illustrate the relationship between test scores and job performance graphically. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Any correlations between test and job performance can be illustrated on an expectancy chart. 37) The strong correlation between test results and job performance has led to numerous expert recommendations that tests be used as the only selection tool in the hiring process. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Although correlations exist in some tests, most experts recommend that tests be used as supplements rather than as primary hiring tools. Interviews and background checks are also important to use in the hiring process. 15

16 38) Selection tests must be validated in the organization that uses them regardless of the validity shown in other similar organizations. Answer: FALSE Explanation: It's best to validate them in your own organization. However, the fact that the same tests have proven valid in similar organizations called validity generalization is usually adequate. 39) Selection tests should be used as supplements to other tools like interviews and background checks. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Tests should serve as supplemental tools in the selection process in addition to interviews and background checks. 40) The American Psychological Association's standards for educational and psychological tests are legally enforceable. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Test takers have rights to privacy and feedback under the American Psychological Association's (APA) standard for educational and psychological tests; these guide psychologists but are not legally enforceable. 41) The Federal Privacy Act allows federal employees to view their personnel files. Answer: TRUE Explanation: According to the Federal Privacy Act, employees of the federal government may inspect their personnel files. The law also limits the disclosure of personnel information without the employee's consent, among other things. 16

17 42) Criterion validity shows a relationship between how well a person performs on a selection test and how well a person performs on the job. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Criterion validity involves demonstrating statistically a relationship between scores on a selection procedure and job performance of a sample of workers. For example, it means demonstrating that those who do well on the test also do well on the job, and that those who do poorly on the test do poorly on the job. 43) According to the Uniform Guidelines, employers are required to prove the validity of selection procedures for all assessments. Answer: FALSE Explanation: The Uniform Guidelines require users to produce evidence of validity only when adverse impact is shown to exist. If there is no adverse impact, there is no validation requirement under the Guidelines. 44) Why are tests and other screening tools an important aspect of employee selection? What rights do test takers have during the testing process? Answer: Once you review your applicants' résumés, the next step is selecting the best candidates for the job, which is where testing and other screening tools become important. Employers narrow the applicant pool by using the screening tools such as tests, assessment centers, and background and reference checks. Then the supervisor can interview likely candidates and decide who to hire. Nothing you do at work is more important than hiring the right employees. It is important for three main reasons: performance, costs, and legal obligations. Test takers have rights to privacy and feedback under the American Psychological Association's (APA) standard for educational and psychological tests; these guide psychologists but are not legally enforceable. Test takers have the right to the confidentiality of test results, the right to informed consent regarding use of these results, the right to expect that only people qualified to interpret the scores will have access to them, or that sufficient information will accompany the scores to ensure their appropriate interpretation and the right to expect the test is fair to all. For example, no one taking it should have prior access to the questions or answers. 17

18 45) What is test validity? How are selection tests validated? Answer: Test validity answers the question "Does this test measure what it's supposed to measure?" Put another way, validity refers to the correctness of the inferences that we can make based on the test. With employee selection tests, validity often refers to evidence that the test is job related in other words, that performance on the test is a valid predictor of job performance. Selection tests are validated by a five step process: analyze the job, choose the tests, administer the test, relate test scores to criteria, and revalidate the test. 46) What is the difference between criterion validity and content validity? Which one is more difficult to demonstrate? riterion validity means demonstrating that those who do well on the test also do well on the job and those that do poorly on the test do poorly on the job. Employers can demonstrate content validity of a test by showing that the test constitutes a fair sample of the content of the job. If the content on the test is representative of what the person needs to know for the job, then the test is probably content valid. Demonstrating content validity sounds easier than it is in practice. Demonstrating that (1) the tasks the person performs on the test are really a comprehensive and random sample of the tasks performed on the job and (2) the conditions under which the person takes the test resemble the work situation is not always easy. For many jobs, employers opt to demonstrate other evidence of a test's validity most often, criterion validity. 18

19 47) For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following questions is most relevant to Golden Creamery's decision to implement preemployment testing for all franchises? A) Should Golden Creamery use internal or external sources for job candidates? B) How will Golden Creamery ensure the confidentiality of an applicant's test results? C) How does testing correlate with Golden Creamery's mission and vision statements? D) What is the role of testing in Golden Creamery's strategic performance management system? Answer: B Explanation: B) Test takers have the right to the confidentiality of test results, so it is important that Golden Creamery develops a plan for maintaining privacy prior to administering tests. Determining whether to hire internally or externally is a recruiting issue rather than a testing concern. Although a firm's mission and vision statements guide its general direction, such statements are not directly relevant to testing. AACSB: Application of Knowledge 48) tests include assessments of general reasoning ability and of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. A) Motor ability B) Personality C) Achievement D) Cognitive Answer: D Explanation: D) Cognitive tests include tests of general reasoning ability (intelligence) and tests of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. Employers may also use tests to measure an applicant's motor and physical abilities. Achievement tests measure what someone has learned, and personality tests measure aspects of an applicant's personality, such as stability, motivation, and introversion. 19

20 49) Grafton Industries administers selection tests to job candidates. The tests measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability, so they are most likely tests. A) standardized B) intelligence C) achievement D) personality Answer: B Explanation: B) Intelligence (IQ) tests are tests of general intellectual abilities. They measure not a single trait but rather a range of abilities, including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability. AACSB: Application of Knowledge 50) All of the following are measured by aptitude tests EXCEPT. A) deductive reasoning B) numerical ability C) temperament D) memory Explanation: C) Temperament and other interpersonal skills are measured by personality tests. Aptitude tests measure deductive and inductive reasoning, verbal comprehension, numerical ability, and memory. 20

21 51) As part of the selection process for a position at UPS, Jack has been asked to lift weights and jump rope. Which of the following is most likely being measured by UPS? A) interpersonal skills B) cognitive skills C) physical abilities D) achievements Explanation: C) Physical abilities are measured by testing an applicant's static strength (lifting weights), dynamic strength, body coordination (jumping rope), and stamina. A UPS worker needs to have such skills to perform the job. AACSB: Application of Knowledge 52) Carl recently participated in a selection test for a position at Northern Aeronautics. The test measured Carl's finger dexterity and reaction time, so it was most likely a(n) test. A) motor ability B) personality C) cognitive D) interest Answer: A Explanation: A) Some jobs require applicants be tested for motor abilities, such as finger dexterity, manual dexterity, and (if hiring pilots) reaction time. For example, the Crawford Small Parts Dexterity Test measures the speed and accuracy of simple judgment as well as the speed of finger, hand, and arm movements. AACSB: Application of Knowledge 21

22 53) All of the following are most likely assessed on personality tests EXCEPT. A) extraversion B) reasoning C) sensitivity D) emotional stability Answer: B Explanation: B) Reasoning skills are tested with aptitude tests. Personality tests measure introversion, sensitivity, motivation, and emotional stability among other qualities. 54) According to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired because of attitude, motivation, and. A) physical limitations B) lack of aptitude C) temperament D) psychological issues Explanation: C) A person's cognitive and physical abilities alone seldom explain his or her job performance. Most people are hired based on qualifications, but most are fired for nonperformance, which is usually the "result of personal characteristics, such as attitude, motivation, and especially, temperament." 22

23 55) Make a Picture Story and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of tests. A) intelligence B) apperception C) self-reported D) projective Answer: D Explanation: D) Projective techniques include Make a Picture Story (MAPS) and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test. With projective tests, the psychologist presents an ambiguous stimulus (like an inkblot or clouded picture) to the person who then reacts to it. 56) Which if the following is a projective personality test? A) MMPI B) California Psychological Inventory C) Make a Picture Story D) Myers Briggs Test Explanation: C) Make a Picture Story is a projective personality test. 57) The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following EXCEPT. A) neuroticism B) optimism C) extroversion D) conscientiousness Answer: B Explanation: B) Industrial psychologists often focus on the "big five" personality dimensions: extroversion, emotional stability/neuroticism, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience. Optimism is not one of the big five. 23

24 58) Which of the following personality dimensions represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility? A) neuroticism B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience Answer: A Explanation: A) Neuroticism relates to anxiety and insecurity and hostility. 59) represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. A) Extroversion B) Conscientiousness C) Agreeableness D) Openness to experience Answer: A Explanation: A) Extroversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. 60) Mike Simmons recently applied for a position with Pfizer Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait most likely has the strongest correlation to Mike's success as a pharmaceutical sales representative? A) extroversion B) agreeableness C) conscientiousness D) openness to experience Answer: A Explanation: A) Extroversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active, which are necessary characteristics for sales reps. Studies have shown that extroversion correlates to success in sales and management jobs. AACSB: Application of Knowledge 24

25 61) Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional? A) extroversion B) conscientiousness C) neuroticism D) openness to experience Answer: D Explanation: D) Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous. 62) The tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle is the personality dimension known as. A) extroversion B) conscientiousness C) agreeableness D) openness to experience Explanation: C) Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. Neuroticism, extroversion, conscientiousness, and openness to experience are the other personality traits known as the big five. 25

26 63) Which personality characteristic is comprised of both achievement and dependability? A) neuroticism B) extroversion C) conscientiousness D) agreeableness Explanation: C) Conscientiousness is comprised of two related facets: achievement and dependability. According to research, conscientiousness has been the most consistent and universal predictor of job performance. 64) While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which personality trait is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs? A) openness to experience B) conscientiousness C) extroversion D) agreeableness Answer: B Explanation: B) According to research, conscientiousness has been the most consistent and universal predictor of job performance. Conscientiousness is comprised of two related facets: achievement and dependability. 26

27 65) Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employees that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin's core values honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge serve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process. Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that Red Robin should use personality tests in the employee selection process? A) Red Robin encourages employees to participate in the firm's environmental stewardship program to show community support. B) Red Robin seeks outgoing, motivated, and compassionate employees to enhance the experience of its customers. C) Red Robin offers monetary incentives to managers who meet quarterly sales targets and exceed performance expectations. D) Red Robin desires employees with extensive knowledge of the restaurant industry and at least two years of experience serving customers. Answer: B Explanation: B) Personality traits, as uncovered by personality tests, often correlate to job performance. Red Robin seeks employees that match the firm's core values of honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge, and personality tests would indicate an applicant's level of extroversion and openness to experiences. AACSB: Application of Knowledge 27

28 66) Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employee that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin's core values honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge serve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process. Which of the following, if true, would most likely undermine the argument that Red Robin should use achievement tests in the employee selection process? A) Red Robin receives so many applications that it only considers individuals with previous job experience in the restaurant industry. B) Red Robin provides a two-week training session to all new hires, which are frequently college students with little experience in the restaurant industry. C) Red Robin expects applicants for management positions to understand current EEO laws and be aware of ADA requirements. D) Red Robin requires applicants for cashier positions to take typing tests to assess their speed at the cash register. Answer: B Explanation: B) Red Robin will train new hires and does not need to assess their job knowledge, so achievement tests are unnecessary. If Red Robin expected applicants to have a certain level of skill or knowledge then achievement tests would be appropriate. AACSB: Application of Knowledge 67) An interest inventory compares an applicant's current interests with the interests of. A) retired workers B) other people in the same industry C) other people in various occupations D) managers and executives in the firm Explanation: C) Interest inventories compare an applicant's interests with those of people in various occupations. Thus, a person who takes the Strong-Campbell Interests Inventory would receive a report comparing his or her interests to those of people already in occupations like accounting, engineering, or management. 28

29 68) Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge? A) aptitude tests B) interest inventories C) achievement tests D) projective tests Explanation: C) Achievement tests measure what someone has learned. They measure your "job knowledge" in areas like economics, marketing, or human resources. 69) Applicant tracking systems are mostly used by employers to. A) develop work samples B) develop specific job descriptions C) verify a candidate's U.S. citizenship D) screen and rank candidates based on skills Answer: D Explanation: D) Applicant tracking systems are used for screening and tracking candidates, compiling resumes, and assisting with applicant testing. Online testing can be handled by an ATS but not situational tests like work sampling. 70) Although inexpensive to develop, assessment centers are infrequently used by employers because such tests have a weak correlation with future job performance. Answer: FALSE Explanation: Assessment centers are expensive to develop and take much longer than conventional tests. However, assessment center performance shows a unique and substantial contribution to the prediction of future job success. Objective: 4 29

30 71) Interest inventories are useful for career planning because they compare the interests of the test taker to the interests of people in various occupations. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Interest inventories compare your interests with those of people in various occupations. Interest inventories are irreplaceable in career planning, since a person will likely do better in jobs that involve activities in which he or she is interested. 72) Applicant tracking systems compile resumes, track applicants during the hiring process, and screen out applicants who do not meet minimum job requirements. Answer: TRUE Explanation: Applicant tracking systems do more than compile incoming Web-based résumés and track applicants during the hiring process. They should also help with the testing and screening. 73) In a brief essay, discuss the use and effectiveness of cognitive tests versus work sampling techniques for employee selection. ognitive tests are tests of general intellectual abilities. They measure not a single trait but rather a range of abilities, including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability. Psychologists often call such tests aptitude tests, since they purport to measure aptitude for the job in question. Consider the Test of Mechanical Comprehension which tests applicants' understanding of basic mechanical principles. This may reflect a person's aptitude for jobs like that of machinist or engineer that require mechanical comprehension. The work sampling technique tries to predict job performance by requiring job candidates to perform one or more samples of the job's basic tasks. Work sampling has several advantages. It measures actual job tasks, so it's harder to fake answers. The work sample's content the actual tasks the person must perform is not as likely to be unfair to minorities. Designed properly, work samples exhibit better validity than do other tests designed to predict performance. 30

31 74) How would an employer benefit from using both personality tests and situational tests when screening job applicants? Answer: A person's cognitive and physical abilities alone seldom explain his or her job performance. Other factors, like motivation and interpersonal skills, are very important, and these can be discovered through personality tests. Employers use personality tests to measure and predict intangibles of an applicant's personality, such as introversion, stability, and motivation. Situational tests require examinees to respond to situations representative of the job. Work sampling, video-based tests, and miniature job training are situational tests. Miniature job training and evaluation assumes that a person who demonstrates that he or she can learn and perform the sample of tasks will be able to learn and perform the job itself. This approach tests applicants with actual samples of the job, so it's inherently content relevant and valid. 75) Industrial psychologists often emphasize the "big five" personality dimensions in personnel testing. List and explain the meaning of the big five dimensions. How do personality traits correlate with job performance? Answer: The "big five" personality dimensions are neuroticism, extroversion, agreeableness, conscientiousness, and openness to experience. Neuroticism refers to a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects like anxiety and insecurity. Extroversion represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. Openness to experience is the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, unconventional, and autonomous. Agreeableness is the tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle. Conscientiousness is comprised of two related facets including achievement and dependability. Extroversion is generally associated with success in sales. Extroversion, conscientiousness, and openness to experience are strong predictors of leadership. Neuroticism is negatively related to motivation. Conscientiousness is the most consistent and universal predictor of job performance. 31

32 76) What is a management assessment center? What are some of the most common tasks conducted in management assessment centers? Answer: A management assessment center is a 2-3 day simulation in which candidates perform realistic management tasks under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate's leadership potential. Typical simulated exercises include 1) the in basket, 2) leaderless group discussion, 3) management games, 4) individual presentations, 5) objective tests, and 6) the interview. These centers can be used for promotion and development purposes as well as for selection. 77) What are three arguments against the use of personality tests as predictors of job performance? Answer: First, projective tests are hard to interpret. An expert must analyze the test taker's interpretations and infer from them his or her personality. The test's usefulness then assumes there's a measurable relationship between a personality trait (like introversion) and success on the job. Second, personality tests can trigger legal challenges. For example, one court held that the MMPI is a medical test (because it can screen out applicants with psychological impairments), and so might violate the ADA. Third, some experts dispute that self-report personality tests predict performance at all. Fourth, people can and will fake responses to personality tests. So personality tests can be useful tools but there can be significant concerns about use. 78) With the work sampling technique, applicants are. A) asked to submit examples of projects they have completed for other employers B) tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest C) tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to several positions in a firm D) given video-based situational interviews to assess their critical thinking skills Answer: B Explanation: B) The work sampling technique tries to predict job performance by requiring job candidates to perform one or more samples of the job's basic tasks. An observer monitors performance on each task and rates the applicant's performance. Objective: 4 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Explain how to use two work simulations for selection. 32

33 79) Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique? A) Applicants find it difficult to fake answers. B) Employers learn about an applicant's personality. C) Applicants can evaluate their own performance. D) Fine motor skills can be accurately assessed over time. Answer: A Explanation: A) Work sampling has several advantages. It measures actual job tasks, so it's harder to fake answers. Work sampling doesn't delve into the applicant's personality, so there's almost no chance of applicants viewing it as an invasion of privacy. Objective: 4 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Explain how to use two work simulations for selection. 80) A(n) is a multi-day simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance. A) work sampling event B) situational judgment test C) management assessment center D) applicant personality test Explanation: C) A management assessment center is a 2- to 3-day simulation in which 10 to 12 candidates perform realistic management tasks (like making presentations) under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate's leadership potential. Objective: 4 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Explain how to use two work simulations for selection. 81) Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT. A) the in-basket B) leaderless group discussions C) motor skills assessments D) management games Explanation: C) Management assessment center tasks include the in-basket, leaderless group discussion, management games, individual oral presentations, testing, and interviews. Motor skills are not assessed. Objective: 4 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Explain how to use two work simulations for selection. 33

34 82) Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process? A) Development costs are very low. B) Minimal time is required for test administration. C) Industrial psychologists are involved in the testing process. D) Experts observe and appraise each candidate's leadership potential. Answer: D Explanation: D) Management assessment centers are expensive to develop, take much longer than conventional tests, require managers acting as assessors, and often require psychologists. However, studies suggest they are worth it as they gain valuable insights about the candidates under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate's leadership potential. Objective: 4 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Explain how to use two work simulations for selection. 83) Work sampling, miniature job training, and video-based tests are examples of. A) intelligence tests B) personality tests C) situational tests D) interests inventories Explanation: C) Situational tests, such as work sampling, miniature job training, and videobased tests, require examinees to respond to situations representative of the job. Objective: 4 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Explain how to use two work simulations for selection. 34

35 84) Which of the following terms refers to training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks and then assessing the candidates' performance prior to hire? A) achievement testing B) work sampling technique C) management assessment center D) miniature job training Answer: D Explanation: D) Miniature job training and evaluation means training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks, and then evaluating the candidates' performance prior to hire. The approach assumes that a person who demonstrates that he or she can learn and perform the sample of tasks will be able to learn and perform the job itself. Objective: 4 Learning Outcome: 6.4 Explain how to use two work simulations for selection. 85) Carter Vacuums needs to hire 20 new employees to fill positions at its manufacturing facility. The HR department wants to minimize the costs related to screening applicants but also wants the assessment method to be highly valid to the specific jobs. Which of the following would be the best choice for Carter Vacuums? A) structured interviews B) cognitive ability tests C) assessment centers D) work samples Answer: B Explanation: B) Cognitive ability tests are highly valid and the costs related to developing and administering the tests are low and they measure mental ability, such as deductive reasoning verbal comprehension, memory and numerical ability for jobs like machinists or engineers. Objective: 4 AACSB: Application of Knowledge Learning Outcome: 6.4 Explain how to use two work simulations for selection. 35

What are aptitude tests used for in the workforce?

Which test is used for selection of employees?

Which of the following tests measures what someone has learned?

What is the name of the tests used to measure how well a job applicant can do a sample of the work to be performed in the job?